BOB PO – Previous year paper

BOB PO - Previous year paper

D.1-5) Study the following information carefully and answer the following questions.

Eight friends Ishita, Ankit, Soham, Karan, Varsha, Sushani, Neeraj and Tanu having different bikes viz. Discover, Pulsar, Rx100, Gixxer, Fz, Ducati, Royal Enfield and Apache. All of them going for dinner and sitting in a circular table. Each bike has different mileage 75, 40, 58, 60, 32, 55, 63 and 35 but not necessarily in the same order.

Varsha does not have Ducati and Royal Enfield Bike. Ducati Bike mileage is above 40 and below 60. Ankit does not have pulsar Bike, but his Bike mileage is below 40 and sits second to the left of Ishita. One who has pulsar Bike sits between Tanu and one who has Royal Enfield, which mileage is 40. Karan sits opposite to Ishita and not sitting adjacent to the one who has Rx100. Soham Bike mileage is 32 but does not sit immediate to Karan and Ishita. Gixxer Bike mileage is above 60. Whose bike mileage is 55 sits immediate neighbour of Soham. One who has Discover Bike is not an immediate neighbour of Ankit but his bike mileage is 75. Sushani, whose Bike mileage is 40, is not an immediate neighbour of Soham and Ishita. One who has Apache Bike sits between one who has Royal Enfield Bike and One who has Ducati Bike. One who has Fz Bike and One who has Gixxer Bike are immediate neighbours of each other. Tanu does not have Gixxer Bike.

Q.1) Neeraj has which of the following Bike?

a) Fz

b) Gixxer

c) Royal Enfield

d) Ducati

e) Can’t be determine

Q.2) Who sits fourth to the left of one who has Fz?

a) One who has Ducati

b) Neeraj

c) Sushani

d) One who has Discover

e) None of these

Q.3) How many persons are sitting between Tanu and Sushani, when counted from Tanu in clockwise direction?

a) Two

b) Three

c) Four

d) Five

e) None of these

Q.4) Which of the following bike has mileage is below 50?

a) Gixxer

b) Fz

c) Pulsar

d) Ducati

e) Rx100

Q.5) Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on the seating arrangement, which one does not belong to that group?

a) Neeraj

b) Tanu

c) Ishita

d) Ankit

e) Varsha

Q.6) In each of the following questions, two statements numbered I and II are given. There may be cause and effect relationship between the two statements. These two statements may be the effect of the same cause or independent causes. These statements may be independent causes without having any relationship. Read both the statements in each question and mark your answer as:

a) If statement I is the cause and statement II is its effect;

b) If statement II is the cause and statement I is its effect;

c) If both the statements I and II are independent causes;

d) If both the statements I and II are effects of independent causes; and

e) If both the statements I and II are effects of some common cause.

Statements:

I. The common public and bankers are undoubtedly facing hardship since more than 85 percent of currency in circulation has been rendered illegal in one single stroke.

II. Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934 and a new redesigned series of Rs 500 banknote, in addition to a new denomination of Rs 2000 banknote are in circulation since November 10, 2016.

D.7-9) Study the following information carefully and answer the given question

N is granddaughter of Q, who is married to S. Q has only two son. V is cousin of P and brother of N. R and M are daughter in law of S. M has two daughters and one son. R has one son and one daughter. W and O are daughters of U. T’s father is S.

Q.7) How is P related to T?

a) Son

b) Daughter

c) Nephew

d) Niece

e) None of these

Q.8) How is M related to T?

a) Brother in law

b) Sister in law

c) Husband

d) Daughter

e) None of these

Q.9) How is P’s father related to R’s daughter?

a) Father

b) Grand father

c) Uncle

d) Brother

e) None of these

Q.10) In the question given below consists of a statement, followed by three arguments numbered I, II and III. You have to decide which of the arguments is a ‘strong’ argument and which is a ‘weak’ argument. Read all the statements in the question and mark your answer.

Statement: Should all the students graduating in any discipline desirous of pursuing post-graduation of the subjects of their choice be allowed to enrol in the post-graduate courses?

Arguments:

I. Yes. The students are the best judge of their capabilities and there should not be restrictions for joining post-graduate courses.

II. No. The students need to study relevant subjects in graduate courses to enrol in post-graduate courses and the students must fulfil such conditions.

III. No. There are not enough institutes offering post-graduate courses which can accommodate all the graduates desirous of seeking post-graduate education of their own choice.

a) None is strong

b) Only I and II are strong

c) All are strong

d) Only I and III are strong

e) None of these

D.11-13) Each of the following questions below consists of a question and three statements numbered I, II and III given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read all the statements and give your answer:

Q.11) Among the five friends P, Q, R, S and T. Who is the second Tallest?

Statements:

I. P is taller than R but Shorter than T.

II. S is taller than T but shorter than Q.

III. S is taller than R but Shorter than P.

a) All I, II and III are sufficient to answer the question

b) Only I and II are sufficient to answer the question

c) Either Only I and II or II and III are sufficient to answer the question

d) Only II and III are sufficient to answer the question

e) None of these

Q.12) How is O related to S?

I. L is the grandfather of P, Who is niece of N.

II. N is the daughter of M. S is the son in law of L.

III. N is the sister of O, who is the mother of P.

a) Only II and III are sufficient to answer the question

b) Only I and II are sufficient to answer the question

c) All I, II and III are sufficient to answer the question

d) Either Only I and II or II and III are sufficient to answer the question

e) None of these

Q.13) Conclusion:

Some Buffalos are not Fish

Some Lion is Tiger is a Possibility

Some Cat being Lion is a Possibility

Statement:

I. All cats are fish, No Horse is a Lion, No Fish is Horse

II. Some Horses are Buffalo, Some Tiger is Fish, Some Lion is Fish.

III. No Lion is Tiger, Some Horses are Fish, All Buffalos are Fish.

a) All I, II and III are not sufficient to answer the question

b) Either I or III is sufficient to answer the question

c) Either only I or only II and III are sufficient to answer the question

d) Only I and II are sufficient to answer the question

e) None of these

D. 14-18) Read the following information carefully and answers the following questions:

In a certain code language,

‘As thick are thieves’ is coded as ‘5!G 6@C 1*E 4*B’

‘Better safe than sorry’ is coded as ‘1*E 8*D 8@D 3@F’

‘Business before pleasures’ is coded as ‘9#I 3!F 7!H’

‘Cheats never prosper’ is coded as ‘5@G 1@E 3@F’

Q.14) Which among the following is the code for the word ‘Madams’?

a) 3#K

b) 2@F

c) 3@F

d) 2#J

e) None of these

Q.15) What does the code word ‘5!G’ represents?

a) Pictures

b) Papers

c) Pendrive

d) Prepare

e) None of these

Q.16) What is the code for the word ‘telecom watchdog’?

a) None of these

b) 4#G 6*H

c) 4*H 6#G

d) 5@G 7!H

e) 5!G 7@H

Q.17) What is the possible code for the word ‘technologies’?

a) 4!U

b) 5@S

c) 5*K

d) 6^L

e) 6#V

Q.18) What is the possible code for the word ‘responsibilities’?

a) 6$K

b) 5&P

c) 8#P

d) Either a or c

e) None of these

D.19-20) Study the following information carefully and answer the given question

Nirmal starts walking from his home and walking towards east for 10m before taking left turn. From there he walked 6m and turned right and walked 5m to reach his friend’s home. Now from there he turned right and walked 1m and turned left and walked 5m. From there, he turned right and walked 20m to reach his college.

Q.19) What is the shortest distance between Nirmal’s home and his college?

a) 20m

b) 25m

c) 15m

d) 30m

e) None of these

Q.20) Nirmal’s friend’s home is in which direction with respect to Nirmal’s college?

a) North east

b) North west

c) South east

d) South west

e) None of these

D.21-25) Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions below:

Eight IT professionals namely X, F, O, L, J, C, Y and B are living on eight different floors of a building but not necessarily in the same order. The lowermost floor of the building is numbered 1 and the topmost floor of the building is numbered 8. Each of them has different designations viz. Art director, Animator, Data janitor, Graphic designer, Programmer, Software tester, Technical writer and Web developer but not necessarily in the same order.

The one who works as data janitor live on an even-numbered floor but not on the topmost floor. Only one person lives between C and the one who works as technical writer. Only two persons live between C and the one who works as data janitor. Neither J nor O lives on the first floor. Only one person lives between O and the one who works as animator. X lives at the floor just above to C. Only two persons live between J and X. The one who works as technical writer does not live on floor numbered 1, F lives on an even-numbered floor and just above to O. The one who works as web developer live on an even numbered floor and lives just above to the person who works as graphic designer. O does not works as technical writer or graphic designer. Only two persons live between the one who works as software tester and the one who works as Art director. L does not work as programmer. The one who works as software tester does not live on an odd-numbered floor. B lives just below the one who works as graphic designer.

Q.21) One who works as data janitor lives in which of the following floors?

a) Second

b) Sixth

c) Fourth

d) Either a or c

e) None of these

Q.22) What is the profession of the one who lives two floors above to B?

a) None of these

b) Programmer

c) Data janitor

d) Software tester

e) Web developer

Q.23) Who among the following persons works as programmer?

a) J

b) O

c) X

d) Y

e) None of these

Q.24) How many floors are there between the one who works as graphic designer and animator?

a) None

b) Four

c) Six

d) Three

e) Five

Q.25) Which of the following statement is/are true?

a) There are three floors are there between the one who works as Art director and B.

b) Y lives on one of the floors above to data janitor.

c) C and B lives in an odd numbered floor.

d) The one who works as software tester lives immediately below to C’s floor.

e) Both b and d.

D.26-30) Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:

Eight persons Gavin, Grant, George, Geo, Gem, Gaja, Gana, and Gani are living on eight storeyed building with ground floor numbered 1 and the above floor it numbered 2 and so on. They have their birth date on August, May, September, November, July, December, June, and October but not necessarily in same order.

As many people live between the one who born in June and October same as between the one who born in May and Grant. Gavin lives on even numbered floor above fourth floor. Number of people living between the one who born in July and Gavin, is two more than the number of persons between the one who was born in May and George. Two people lives between the floors on which Gavin lives and the one who was born in July. Four people lives between the floors of George and Gaja. The person who was born in May lives on odd numbered floor above the one who born in July and below the floor upon which Gavin lives. The number of person born between George and the one born in October is less than 3.Grant was not born in May. The person who was born in June lives on one of the floor above the one who born in October and lives on even number floor below 8th floor but not on 4th floor.

Gana lives on odd floor immediately above Geo. Four people lives between the one, who born in December and November. George lives on even numbered floor above Gaja. The person who born in December lives on one of the floors above to the person who born in November. Grant lives immediately above Gani. Geo was not born in August.

Q.26) In some way Gavin is related to Gem and Gana is related to Geo, in the same way Grant is related to?

a) Gani

b) Gana

c) Geo

d) Gaja

e) None of these

Q.27) Grant born in which of the following months?

a) June

b) July

c) October

d) November

e) None of these

Q.28) How many floors are there between Gani and Gavin?

a) Three

b) Four

c) Two

d) Five

e) None of these

Q.29) Geo born in which of the following months?

a) July

b) October

c) November

d) September

e) None of these

Q.30) Gavin lives on which of the following floors?

a) First

b) Fifth

c) Seventh

d) Eight

e) None of these

D.31-35) Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions below:

Eight family members of a family U, S, M, K, D, T, Q and P are seated in square table four of them sits corner of the table while four of them sits middle of the table. Four of them facing inside while four of them facing outside of the table. There are three generation and two married couples.

K is D’s nephew and he is seated opposite to his grandmother. K faces outside. D’s brother is to the immediate right of U. P is U’s daughter and sits second to the right of her grandfather. M doesn’t sit any of the corners and faces inside. S is third to the left of his wife. Q is to the immediate left of his grandson. Q has only one son. P is second to the right of her mother. D is to the immediate right of her brother-in-law. D and T do not sit together but they face opposite direction to that of U.

Q.31) How is T is related to M?

a) Brother

b) Grandson

c) Daughter

d) Son

e) Cannot be determined

Q.32) Who among the following persons sits third to the left of T’s niece?

a) D’s father

b) U’s brother

c) S’s Mother-in-law

d) P’s father

e) None of these

Q.33) Who among the following persons are the immediate neighbours of U’s sister?

a) D’s sister-in-law and U’s father

b) U’s husband and Q’s wife

c) M’s husband and M’s wife

d) S and U

e) None of these

Q.34) Which of the following statement is/are true?

a) D and T are siblings and T’s brother-in-law is U.

b) K sits to the immediate left his sister.

c) U is an immediate neighbour of her brother and mother.

d) S sits third to the left of her daughter.

e) Both c and d

Q.35) If T and K facing same direction to that of U’s spouse then who among the following persons sits fourth to the left of K’s uncle?

a) T’s one of the sister

b) K’s mother

c) Q’s daughter-in-law

d) None of these

e) Q’s son-in-law

D.36-37) In Each group of questions below are three conclusions followed by five set of statements. You have to choose the correct set of statements that logically satisfies given Conclusions. Given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts.

Q.36) Conclusions:

At least some Dogs are being Fox is a possibility.

Frequently Snake are Dog.

Some Lions are not Fox

Statements:

a) Statement I : All Dogs are Snake. Each Dogs are Lion. No Dog is a Fox.

b) Statement II: All Dogs are Snake. All Snake are Lion. No Lion is a Fox.

c) Statement III: Some Dogs are Snake. Generally Dogs are Lion. No Dog is a Fox.

d) Statement IV: Some Dog are Snake. Every Snake are Lion. No Dog is a Fox.

e) Statement V: Each Dogs are Snake. Most of Dogs are Lion. No Lion is a Fox.

Q.37) Conclusions:

Frequently Gold are Silvers.

At least some Diamonds are Platinum.

All Silvers being Diamond is a possibility.

Statements:

a) Statement II: Some Platinum are Silver. Some Silvers are Diamond. Some Diamonds are Gold

b) Statement III: All Platinum are Diamond. Some Diamond are Silver. Some Silvers are not Gold.

c) Statement IV: All Platinum are Diamonds. All Diamonds are Silver. No Silver is Gold.

d) Statement I: Some Platinum are Diamond. Some Diamonds are Silver. Some silver are Gold

e) Statement V: Some Platinum are Diamonds. Some Diamonds are silver. Some Platinum are gold.

D. 38-42) In these questions relationship between different elements is shown in the statements followed by conclusions:

‘A@B’ means ‘A is not smaller than B’

‘A$B’ means ’A is not greater than B’

‘A%B’ means ‘A is neither smaller than nor equal to B’

‘A*B’ means ‘A is neither greater than nor equal to B’

‘A#B’ means ‘A is neither smaller than nor greater than B’

Q.38) Statements: Q*M, P@Q, R#M, Y@R

Conclusions:

I. P@R

II. Q%R

III. M$Y

IV. P%Y

a) I only follow

b) II only follows

c) III only follows

d) IV only follows

e) None follows.

Q.39) Statements: F$C, D%B, F#D, A*B

Conclusions:

I. A*D

II. B*F

III. C%D

IV. C#D

a) Only I and II follows

b) Only I follow

c) Either conclusion I or III follows

d) Either conclusions III or IV and I & II follows

e) None of these

Q.40) Statements: K*F, D@F, A#D, B*A

Conclusions:

I. F@B

II. A%F

III. K*D

IV. B%F

a) Only I follow

b) Only II follows

c) Only III follows

d) Both II and III follow

e) None of these

Q.41) Statements: D@E, C*D, C@B, A#B

Conclusions:

I. D#E

II. C*D

III. E*D

IV. C%A

a) Either I or III follows

b) Only conclusions I, II and III follow

c) Only II follows

d) Both II and III follow

e) None of these

Q.42) Statements: H%I, T#J, J$I, T*S

Conclusions:

I. T*H

II. S%J

III. T$I

IV. H%J

a) Conclusions I, II and III follow

b) Conclusions II, III and IV follow

c) Both I and II follow

d) All follow

e) None of these

D.43-45): Each of the following questions consists of five or six statements followed by options consisting of three statements put together in a specific order. Choose the options that indicate a combination where the third statement can be logically follows from the first two statements and that option will be the answer.

Q.43) Statements:

I. All Birds are Flowers

II. Some flowers are rose

III. Some rose are Birds

IV. No rose is Jack

V. All Birds are rose

a) (I, II, III)

b) (IV, V, III)

c) (II, IV, V)

d) (II, V, IV)

e) None of these

Q.44) Statements:

I. No Chess is Carrom.

II. All Carrom is Table.

III. Some Carrom are Playground.

IV. All Playgrounds are Balls.

V. Some Chess is Table.

VI. Some Balls are Carrom.

a) (I, II, IV)

b) (III, IV, VI)

c) (II, V, I)

d) (III, VI, IV)

e) None of these

Q.45) Statements:

I. All Benz is Swift.

II. All Benz is Nissan.

III. All Benz is Breeze.

IV. All Breeze is Nissan.

V. All Swift is wagon.

VI. All Swift is Nissan.

a) (II, V, IV)

b) (I, V, VI)

c) (III, V, VI)

d) (III, II, V)

e) None of these

D.46-50) Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions

When the word and number are arrangement machine is given an input line of words and numbers, it arranges them following a particular rule. The following is an illustration of an input and rearrangements

Input: Unit 86 63 solution insisting 37 maintain 75 expressing 60 belief 26

Step I: 60 Unit 86 63 solution insisting 37 maintain 75 expressing 26 belief

Step II: 26 60 Unit 86 63 solution insisting 37 maintain 75 belief expressing

Step III: 63 26 60 Unit 86 solution insisting 37 75 belief expressing maintain

Step IV: 37 63 26 60 Unit 86 solution 75 belief expressing maintain insisting

Step V: 75 37 63 26 60 Unit 86 belief expressing maintain insisting solution

Step VI: 86 75 37 63 26 60 belief expressing maintain insisting solution unit

Step VI is the last step of the above arrangement as the intended arrangement is obtained.

As per the rules followed in the given steps, find out the appropriate steps for the given input

Input: orange 87 59 talent 23 67 accord falsely 28 cohesion energy 45

Q.46) Which of the following statement is true based on step IV?

a) ‘accord’ and ‘falsely’ are not the immediate neighbours

b) ‘23’ is arranged third to the left of ‘28’

c) ‘falsely’ and ‘28’ are the two elements arranged in the extreme ends

d) Only three words are there between ‘orange’ and ‘falsely’

e) None of these

Q.47) Which of the following word or number is eighth from the right end in step V?

a) orange

b) 23

c) talent

d) 45

e) None of these

Q.48) Which of the following output is step III?

a) 28 45 23 orange 59 87 talent 67 energy cohesion accord falsely

b) 28 45 23 orange 87 59 talent 67 energy cohesion accord falsely

c) 28 45 23 orange 59 87 talent 67 accord falsely energy cohesion

d) 28 45 23 orange 59 87 energy cohesion accord falsely talent 67

e) None of these

Q.49) How many steps are needed to get the final output from the above input?

a) V

b) IV

c) VII

d) VI

e) None of these

Q.50) After getting the final output all the numbers are arranged in descending order from left to right then how many numbers are retaining their original position?

a) One

b) Two

c) Three

d) More three

e) None of these.

D.51-55) Find the missing number in the following number series.

Q.51) 100, 80, 64, 51.2, ?

a) 15.6

b) 40.96

c) 25.6

d) 14.2

e) None of these

Q.52) 3, 3.5, 10, 37.5, 164, ?

a) 822.5

b) 774.5

c) 842.5

d) 852.5

e) None of these

Q.53) 121, 242, 726, 2904, 14520, ?

a) 72600

b) 87120

c) 91640

d) 81640

e) None of these

Q.54) 1212, 1210, 1193, 1146, 1054, ?

a) 902

b) 1020

c) 1002

d) 920

e) None of these

Q.55) 170, 186, 154, 218, 90, ?

a) 286

b) 346

c) 282

d) 400

e) None of these

Q.56) A shopkeeper marks a teddy bear 25% above the cost price. If he offers x% discount he gains 20%. If the cost price of the teddy bear is Rs.800, find the value of x.

a) 6%

b) 4%

c) 5%

d) 7%

e) 10%

Q.57) Komadha lent certain sum of money to two persons Lalu Prasad and Akilesh at 5% Simple Interest. Akilesh got a sum which is 1000 more than the sum got by Lalu Prasad. After 5 years Komadha received as interest (in aggregate) which was 5000 less than the sum lent by Komadha to Lalu Prasad at the rate of 5% per annum. Find the total sum lent by Komadha.

a) 10500

b) 21000

c) 22000

d) 21500

e) 22500

Q.58) Usain bolt was on a world tour for an entire year, which is not a leap year. He spent 3/5th of the days in Switzerland and 50% of the remaining period he spent in Brazil .Subsequently he spent 13 days playing cricket in Pakistan and after that he spent twice the time spent in Pakistan, in witnessing bull fights in Spain. He spent the remaining time in India. Find the number of days Usain bolt remaining in India.

a) 34days

b) 20days

c) 60days

d) 40days

e) None of these

Q.59) The MRP of a battery is Rs.50 and the shopkeeper allows a discount of 15% on it and still makes a profit. The cost price of the battery is the value of the MRP. Find the profit percentage in the sale

a) 6.25%

b) 5.75%

c) 7.25%

d) 6.5%

e) None of these

Q.60) A test consists of 80 questions carrying one mark each. Smriti Irani answered 70% of the first 30 questions correctly. What percent of the other 50 questions does she need to answer correctly to score 70% in the entire test?

a) 50%

b) 65%

c) 75%

d) 70%

e) None of these

D.61-65) Study the following information carefully and answer the following questions.

The following table shows the number of different animals in 5 different forests.

Animals

Monkey

Deer

bear

Elephant

Tiger

Tarkine

1500

1530

950

900

500

Amazon

1700

1800

1100

800

600

Aracuaria

1400

1450

1450

850

450

Yakushima

1600

1200

1000

1050

750

Baobab

1550

1300

1200

950

650

Q.61) What is the ratio of the number of monkeys and deers in the Amazon forest to the number of bears and elephants in the Baobab forest?

a) 63: 47

b) 70: 43

c) 43: 57

d) 57: 63

e) None of these

Q.62) Find the average number of animals in the Tarkine forest?

a) 1167

b) 1070

c) 1266

d) 1076

e) None of these

Q.63) Total tiger population is approximately what percentage of total elephant population in all the forests taken together?

a) 55%

b) 70%

c) 65%

d) 68%

e) 72%

Q.64) Number of deer in Yakushima forest is what percentage of total animals in that forest?

a) 25%

b) 23%

c) 19%

d) 21%

e) None of these

Q.65) What is the difference between the total number of animals in Aracuaria forest and those in the Amazon forest?

a) 500

b) 600

c) 650

d) 550

e) None of these

Q.66) The train Sampark Kranti Express crosses a tree in 40 seconds and the next train Pallavan Express crosses the same tree in 50 seconds. If the length of sampark kranti Express is 2/5th of Pallavan Express, the ratio of the speed of Sampark kranti Express to Pallavan Express is?

a) 1:2

b) 20:3

c) 19:2

d) 8:25

e) None of these

Q.67) An examination paper contains 6 questions in which 2 have 4 possible answers each, 3 have 2 possible answers each and the remaining questions has 6 possible answers. In how many ways can the examination paper be answered?

a) 682

b) 786

c) 768

d) 728

e) None of these

Q.68) How many numbers divisible by 5 and lying between 4000 and 6000 can be formed from the digits 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7 (repetition is not allowed)?

a) 12

b) 15

c) 20

d) 25

e) 36

Q.69) A die is tossed once. If event of getting an odd number is a success, then the probability of getting at least three success’ is:

a)

b)

c)

d)

e) None of these

Q.70) A rectangle and a square have the same perimeter. The side of the square is 10 m. What is the area of the rectangle, if the breadth of the rectangle is 1/4th its length?

a) 16 sq m

b) 36 sq m

c) 60 sq m

d) 64 sq m

e) Cannot be determined

D.71-75) What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following questions?

Q.71) 25% of 40% of 2500- x% of 25% of 1600=170

a) 10

b) 15

c) 25

d) 28

e) 20

Q.72)

a)

b)

c)

d)

e)

Q.73)

a) -10

b) 15

c) 10

d) 20

e) 12

Q.74)

a) 10

b) 12

c) 5

d) 15

e) 20

Q.75)

a) 100

b) 129

c) 110

d) 125

e) 108

D.76-80) Study the following graph carefully and answer the given questions:

The pie chart shows the percentage of students studying in five different places in Chennai branch

The table shows the ratio of the students studying in Chennai branch to Chandigarh branch in five different places

Total number of students in Chennai branch

Name of the place

Ratio of the students in Chennai branch to Chandigarh branch

Computer lab

4:5

Library

5:7

Solo practice

2:3

School block

5:9

Study hall

2:5

Q.76) Find the total number of students studying in solo practice in both the branches? (in thousands)

a) 25

b) 15

c) 35

d) 20

e) 45

Q.77) The number of students studying in school block in Chandigarh branch is approximately what percent of the number of students studying in school block in Chennai branch?

a) 125%

b) 127%

c) 180%

d) 130%

e) 132%

Q.78) The number of students studying in Puducherry branch is 20% more than the number of students studying in Chennai branch. Find the number of students studying in Library in both the branch, if the distribution of Puducherry is same percentage as Chennai? (In thousands)

a) 75

b) 65

c) 80

d) 85

e) 90

Q.79) What is the approximate central angle of Study hall in Chandigarh branch? (In degrees)

a) 45

b) 30

c) 48

d) 55

e) 82

Q.80) What is the total number of students studying in Computer lab in both the branches together? (In thousands)

a) 35

b) 50

c) 40

d) 55

e) 45

Q.81) The ratio between the speed of U and P is 10: 11 and an animal covers a distance of 20 km in 4 hours. The speed of U is th the speed of the animal. How much distance will P cover in 10 hours?

a) 44 km

b) 33 km

c) 35 km

d) 42 km

e) None of these

Q.82) A, B, C and D brands of Salt are purchased at Rs. 25, 18, 20 and 15 per kg respectively mixed in the ratio of 5 : 4 : 3 : 1. What is the SP per kg of the mixture, so that 15% of profit can be obtained?

a) 21

b) 15.75

c) 18.5

d) 24.06

e) None of these

Q.83) A group of men, women and children went to a forest for hunting. A man can hunt one animal in 1 day, a woman can hunt 2 animals in 4 days and a child can hunt 1 animal in 3 days. Find the ratio of time taken by man, woman and child to hunt an animal?

a) 2 : 3 : 1

b) 1 : 2 : 3

c) 3 : 7 : 1

d) 1 : 2 : 5

e) None of these

Q.84) By selling an article at Rs.450 a shopkeeper get a profit of 25%. Then what would be the percentage of profit/loss if seven such articles are sold for Rs.3200?

a) 32%

b) 25%

c) 27%

d) 30%

e) None of these

Q.85) P, Q and R start at the same time in the same direction to run a circular stadium. P completes a round in 132 seconds, Q in 192 seconds and R in 216 seconds. After what time will they meet again at the starting point?

a) 50 mins 24 sec

b) 316mins48 sec

c) 48 mins 48 sec

d) Cannot be determined

e) None of these

D.86-90) In the below questions, two equations I and II are given. You have to solve both the equations and answer the following questions accordingly. If,

a) r > q

b) q > r

c) q ≤ r

d) r ≥ q

e) q = r or Relationship can’ t be established between q and r.

Q.86)

Q.88)

Q.89)

Q.90)

D.91-95) Each of the question have two statements numbered I and II are given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and give answer.

a) If the data in statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone is not sufficient to answer the question.

b) If the data in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone is not sufficient to answer the question.

c) If the data in statement I alone of statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question.

d) If the data in both statement I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.

e) If the data in both statement I and II together are sufficient to answer the question.

Q.91) In how many days 8 men, 2 women and 4 children can do the work?

I.3 Children can do the same work in 10 days as 8 men can do this in 2 days.

II. 4 Women can do the same work in 8 days as 8 men can do this in 2 days.

Q.92) Find the amount invested by manish in a business?

I. Manish and Ravish invested amount in the ratio of 4:5

II. Manish invested amount for a time period of 6 years and Ravish invested it for 3 years.

Q.93) Find the % of profit gained by retailer at a discount of 10%?

I. The marked price of an article is Rs.1000 and the retailer bought that at Rs.500.

II. The profit gained by retailer is twice the profit gained by his brother by selling the same article.

Q.94) What is the average price of mixed rice which contains 2 kg of rice 1, 1 kg of rice 2 and 4 kg of rice 3?

I. The price of 2 kg of rice 1 is twice the amount of price of 4 kg of rice 2 and it is equal to 1 kg of rice 3 and the price of half kg of rice 3 is Rs.50.

II. The price of rice 3 is twice the amount of rice 2 and thrice the amount of rice 1.

Q.95) What is the length of the train A?

I. The train crosses a pole in 3 sec at 40 km/hr.

II. The train A crosses train B which is of length of 150 m coming from opposite direction in 30 sec. The difference between the speed of train A and train B is 12 km/hr.

D.96-100)Study the following line graph carefully and answer the given questions:

The line graph show the wedding cards printed by five different presses in four different shapes.

Q.96) What is the total number of Diamond shaped and Heart shaped wedding cards printed by all presses together?

a) 2873

b) 2837

c) 2937

d) 2973

e) None of these

Q.97) What is the difference between the sum of number of all shapes of wedding cards printed by Mega press and the sum of number of all shapes of wedding cards printed by Meera press?

a) 75

b) 80

c) 110

d) 90

e) None of these

Q.98) If Megana press wants to increase their heart , diamond, circle and square shaped wedding cards by 10%, 15%, 10% and 20% respectively, then what will be the total number of wedding cards printed by Megana press after the increase?

a) 1305

b) 1035

c) 1503

d) 1300

e) None of these

Q.99) The number of Square shaped wedding cards printed by Meena press is approximately what percentage of the number of circle shaped wedding card s printed by the same press?

a) 154.56%

b) 134.45%

c) 126.67%

d) 122.45%

e) None of these

Q.100) What is the ratio between the number of all shapes of wedding cards printed by Menaka press to the number of Heart shaped wedding cards printed by all press’?

a) 2 : 3

b) 1: 1

c) 3 : 5

d) 4 : 7

e) None of these

Q.101) Which state government has announced allocation of 11,574 acres of land for the construction of Tourism in 9 thematic city?

a) Maharashtra

b) Uttar Pradesh

c) Andhra Pradesh

d) Arunachal Pradesh

e) Karnataka

Q.102) What was the theme of the 2017 Raisina Dialogue held in New Delhi?

a) The New Normal: Multilateralism in a Multipolar World

b) Connecting Asia Through World

c) Asia: Regional and Global Connectivity

d) Come Together for Economic & Social Development

e) None of these

Q.103) Which of the following company has partnered with Indian Institute of Information Technology and Management, Kerala (IIITM-K) to monitor quality and presence of metals in water in real-time?

a) Accenture

b) WIPRO

c) TCS

d) IBM

e) Microsoft

Q.104) Harry Vardon Trophy is associated with which of the following game?

a) Badminton

b) Cricket

c) Golf

d) Hockey

e) Tennis

Q.105) The first tranche of sovereign gold bonds for this fiscal will open for subscription from April 24 to April 28. The issue price of the gold bonds will be ____ per gram less than the nominal value?

a) Rs.75

b) Rs.150

c) Rs.100

d) Rs.50

e) Rs.60

Q.106) Which of the following company won the prestigious Golden Peacock Award in the category of Innovative Product/Service for pioneering a cashless township transformation model?

a) DFPC

b) BVFC

c) RCFL

d) GCNF

e) GNFC

Q.107) Which train travel market place has launched a service to deliver warm milk in specially designed spill-proof thermos-like packaging for babies travelling in trains?

a) Railkhana.in

b) Railmantra.in

c) RailYatri.in

d) Railpratra.in

e) None of these

Q.108) What is the starting price fixed planned to be selling Hitler’s personal travelling telephone by US based auction house 2017?(approximately in Indian rupees)

a) Rs.23 lakhs

b) Rs.35 lakhs

c) Rs.47 lakhs

d) Rs.67 lakhs

e) Rs.85 lakhs

Q.109) Name the stock exchange of United Kingdom is _____.

a) KSE 100

b) IBEX 35

c) FTSE 100

d) KOSPI

e) BOVESPA

Q.110) National Mineral Development Corporation (NMDC) and Defence Metallurgical Research Laboratory (DMRL) signed an MoU to tap which mineral assets in the country?

a) Graphite

b) Iron

c) Lead

d) Tungsten

e) Manganese

Q.111) World Bank arm International Finance Corporation (IFC) plans to part-fund the expansion programme of which pharma firm to setting up a green field facility?

a) Lupin Ltd

b) Cipla

c) Aurobindo Pharma

d) Ajanta Pharma

e) Granules India Ltd

Q.112) Who has been appointed as the Non-Official Director (Non executive chairman in Punjab National Bank 2017(recently)?

a) Sunil Mehta

b) Usha Ananthasubramaniam

c) Brahmaji Rao

d) Ram.S.Sangapure

e) Rabi.N.Mishra

Q.113) Headquarter of United Nations Education Scientific & Cultural Organisation (UNESCO) is in_______.

a) Brussels, Belgium

b) Hague, Netherlands

c) London, UK

d) Paris, France

e) Bern, Switzerland

Q.114) Name the book bags Sahitya Akademi award for Translation in English category which was written by Perumal Murugan, recently?

a) A Little Life

b) All That Man Is

c) His Bloody Project

d) Hot Milk

e) One Part Woman

Q.115) The Finance Minister Arun Jaitley announced TEC India as the agenda of the Union Budget 2017-18 on February 1, 2017. What does E stands for in TEC India?

a) Equity

b) Energy

c) Energise

d) Equality

e) Environment

Q.116) In which two places, India and Rwanda had concluded a bilateral air services agreement to enable direct flights between them?

a) Kigali and Delhi

b) Gisenyi and Mumbai

c) Kigali and Mumbai

d) Butare and Karnataka

e) Bugesera and Delhi

Q.117) Zaruki International Airport is located in_____.

a) Nagpur, Maharashtra

b) Shillong, Meghalaya

c) Jaipur, Rajasthan

d) Hyderabad, Telangana

e) Bangalore, Karnataka

Q.118) The World’s Largest Battery Storage Plant has been set up in which country?

a) California, United States

b) London, United Kingdom

c) Berlin, Germany

d) Paris, France

e) Geneva, Switzerland

Q.119) Which mine owned by Tata Steel awarded with Best Green Award at the Global green future leadership awards in Mumbai?

a) Katamati Iron Mine

b) Noamundi Iron Mine

c) Joda Iron Mine

d) Ratnaghri Iron Mine

e) None of these

Q.120) E-sports will become a medal event at the 2022 Asian games. It will be held in____.

a) Jakarta, Indonesia

b) Seoul, South Korea

c) Hangzhou, China.

d) Doha, Qatar

e) Tokyo, Japan

Q.121) How much fund has allotted for construction of the three medical colleges and hospitals in Dhubri, Nagaon and Lakhimpur at Assam State announced by Assam Health Minister Himanta Biswa Sarma?

a) Rs.630 crores

b) Rs.570 crores

c) Rs.700 crores

d) Rs.750 crores

e) Rs.800 crores

Q.122) According to 2011 census, the state in India with the largest rural population is _______.

a) Uttar Pradesh

b) Bihar

c) Andhra Pradesh

d) Madhya Pradesh

e) Rajasthan

Q.123) Name the India’s premier health institute the All India Institutes of Medical Sciences (AIIMS), was awarded the first prize of the Government’s Kayakalp Award under the Central Government Hospitals category?

a) AIIMS Bhopal

b) AIIMS Bhubaneswar

c) AIIMS Delhi

d) AIIMS Jodhpur

e) AIIMS Patna

Q.124) Which of the following is the deepest fresh water lake in the world?

a) Lake Tanganyika, Africa

b) Lake Victoria, Africa

c) Lake Baikal, Russia

d) Great Slave Lake, Canada

e) Lake Superior, North America

Q.125) The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) announced signing of an MoU with which bank for Supervisory Cooperation and Exchange of Supervisory Information?

a) People’s Bank of China

b) Bank of America

c) Royal Bank of Scotland

d) Bank of Guyana

e) Bank of International Settlement

Q.126) Curzon line is the boundary line between ______.

a) Poland and Russia

b) Israel and Syria

c) France and Germany

d) Russia and Finland

e) Finland and Syria

Q.127) Name the Australian batsman who has announced the retirement from his international career in 2017?

a) Steve Smith

b) Glenn Maxwell

c) Nathan Lyon

d) Matt Renshaw

e) Adam Voges

Q.128) Which of the following amendment granted full statehood to Goa?

a) 75th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1996

b) 55th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1986

c) 56th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1987

d) 65th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1977

e) 80th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1945

Q.129) Who has become the second hockey player in the country to receive an honorary doctorate, being awarded one for “sporting excellence” by Desh Bhagat University, a private institution in Punjab?

a) Manpreet Singh

b) S K Uthappa

c) Akashdeep Singh

d) Kothajit Singh

e) Sandeep Singh

Q.130) The National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA) will conduct its first mock exercise on forest fires in which state of India?

a) Uttarakhand

b) Odissa

c) Himachal Pradesh

d) Haryana

e) Punjab

Q.131) Who was conferred with 52nd Jnanpith Award by the President Pranab Mukherjee, recently?

a) Kandha Ghosh

b) Skanda Ghosh

c) Ampreet Ghosh

d) Sankha Ghosh

e) Santha Ghosh

Q.132) Name the first Indian Women to get C.K. Nayudu lifetime achievement award for 2016-17 from BCCI?

a) Mithali Raj

b) Anjum Chopra

c) Purnima Rao

d) Shantha Rangaswamy

e) Shubhangi Kulkarni

Q.133) Operation flood is related to increase in the production of _____.

a) Water

b) Fish

c) Milk

d) Coral reefs

e) Crops

Q.134) Which company made the world’s first commercially available flying car went for pre-order at a starting price of Rs. 2.67 crore?

a) Poland Company VAL-V Liberty

b) Sweden Company KAL-V Liberty

c) Dutch company PAL-V, Liberty

d) Norway Company VAL-V-Liberty

e) Holland Company KAL-V-Liberty

Q.135) Which of the following state does not border Chhattisgarh?

a) Bihar

b) Odissa

c) Andhra Pradesh

d) Jharkhand

e) Madhya Pradesh

Q.136) Which of the following person inaugurated three welfare initiatives of the Department of Justice. The services are ‘Pro-bono legal services’, ‘Tele-law service’ and Nyaya Mitra?

a) Sushma Swaraj

b) Nitin Gadkari

c) Venkaiah Naidu

d) Ravi Shankar Prasad

e) Sadananda Gowda

Q.137) Which was became India’s first warship to install solar panels on board system was 100% reliable and would save 22,995 litres of diesel annually (2017)?

a) INS Vikramaditya

b) INS Sarvekshak

c) INS Chennai

d) INS Kalvari

e) INS Samritha

Q.138) Which city will host Winter Military World Games in 2017?

a) New York, U.S

b) Sydney, Australia

c) London, U.K.

d) Frankfurt, Germany

e) Sochi, Russia

Q.139)When was the National Advisory Council set up in India?

a) 1987

b) 1998

c) 2007

d) 2006

e) 2004

Q.140) India and the European Union firmed up plans for holding the 14th bilateral summit to be held in India. Who is the European Union President?

a) Koen Lenaerts

b) Joseph Muscat

c) Antonio Tajani

d) Jean-Claude Juncker

e) Donald Tusk

Q.141) Which of the following Minister launched “Bundelkhand water conservation programme” at Bandri in Sagar District of Madhya Pradesh?

a) Nitin Gadkari

b) Birender Singh

c) Anant Geete

d) Uma Bharti

e) Maneka Gandhi

Q.142) India has been sanctioned how much amount to children of freedom fighters in Bangladesh for the next five years under the new ‘Muktijodha scholarship’ scheme?

a) Rs.40 Crore

b) Rs.50 Crore

c) Rs.35 Crore

d) Rs.30 Crore

e) Rs.25 Crore

Q.143) When is the National Productivity Week observed in India?

a) February 12 – 18

b) February 11 – 17

c) February 15 – 21

d) February 18 – 24

e) February 13 -20

Q.144) Which among the following is the smallest country in the African continent?

a) Seychelles

b) Gambia

c) Libya

d) Congo

e) Sudan

Q.145) The longest corridor of Delhi Metro’s Phase III project, the Pink Line from Mukundpur to Shiv Vihar. What is the extended deadline for this project?

a) February, 2018

b) April, 2018

c) March, 2018

d) December, 2017

e) July, 2017

Q.146) Name the microfinance provider, has received licence from Reserve Bank of India (RBI) to set up Small Finance Bank, recently?

a) Janalakshmi Financial Services Ltd

b) Spandana Microfinance Ltd

c) Ujjivan Microfinance Ltd

d) SKS Microfinance Ltd

e) Bandhan Financial Services Ltd

Q.147) Which of the following Two Indian-Americans were selected by the American Council on Education, ACE in Houston for its prestigious fellowship?

a) Sundeep Raju & Titu R Mupidi

b) Vikaram Raju & Sudeep R Mupidi

c) Ritu Raju & Sundeep R Muppidi

d) Titu Raju & Sandeep R Muppidi

e) Kitu Raju & Sundeep R Muppdi

Q.148) Which country and Japan successfully conducted a flight test of a Standard Missile-3 (SM-3) Block IIA from the Pacific Missile Range Facility at Kauai, off coast Hawaii?

a) France

b) China

c) Russia

d) Japan

e) US

Q.149) Which Financial Centre partners with GIFT City to share exchange of information on banking, financial service and securities between them?

a) Hong Kong International Financial Centre

b) Frankfurt International Financial Centre

c) Dubai International Financial Centre

d) Chicago International Financial Centre

e) Dublin International Financial Centre

Q.150) India’s first water body, “Ameenpur Lake” declared as a Biodiversity Heritage Site, under the Biological Diversity Act, 2002. It is located in which state?

a) West Bengal

b) Karnataka

c) Andhra Pradesh

d) Telangana

e) Rajasthan

D.151-160): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words/phrases are given in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.

What is the priority of pedagogy for peace in the 21st century? Do we teach cultures and philosophies of peace at schools and universities around the world only to start new wars and conflicts? Is education for peace still a top priority in universities and colleges? And finally, does education help us to live a peaceful life and to bring peace around the world? These questions need to be in our awareness on a daily basis. Only then can we treat people, nature and most life itself in a more empathic manner. In this light, education by definition is an ethical enterprise. In other words, education is more than a way of being; it is an art of becoming. It is not only a process of nurturing the human soul, as the ancient Greeks understood it through the notion of paideia, meaning the acquisition and transmission of excellence, but also what philosopher Bertrand Russell defines as “a certain outlook on life and the world.” The ancient Greeks understood paideia as the essence of culture and communication in a good society. The aim of paideia, Aristotle argues in Politics, is to enable members of a community to decide the political organisation of society. Therefore, we need to assess the paideic dimension of peace building. This describes the ethical and spiritual foundations of the process of rebuilding peace in or among societies. As such, peace building is not only about the security-sector reform of a society emerging from conflict; it is the medium- to long-term process of educating humanity with a special focus on the importance of promoting peace. In other words, in a world truly concerned about the happiness of future generations, peace and the process of taming violence in and among societies are continual, concrete, and the daily results of education as a learning process. In this process, the importance of autonomy and the nobility of spirit, which are primarily intellectual virtues, cannot be underestimated. Therefore, the main concern of education is to engender a certain character in human beings and to teach them the nobility of spirit and the moral common ground of actions. If that is the case, the aim of education is not solely an academic pursuit; it is a pursuit of moral wisdom. Immanuel Kant, in his Lecture Notes on Pedagogy, says the aim of education “must be the moralisation of man”. The educational theory advocated by him is closely related to his belief in the moral progress of humanity which is a self-articulated and self-realised process of attaining intellectual maturity. However, Kant considers this self-educating process of humanity as a slow and gradual cosmopolitan process. “Our only hope,” affirms Kant, “is that each generation, provided with the knowledge of the foregoing one, is able, more and more, to bring about an education which shall develop man’s natural gifts in their due proportion and relation to their end, and thus advance the whole human race toward its destiny.” There was a time when education was the highest task of human culture. However, in today’s world we have become dulled to what it means to be fully cultured or well-educated. Our modern world is without a vision of human society encompassing these two experiences. Likewise, peace, as a dominant idea for moral education in the past, has gradually experienced its isolation in the two fields of politics and international relations. As a consequence, the peacekeepers of today are diplomats and soldiers. Moreover, the peace education promoted today by institutions such as UNESCO and the UN General Assembly is far from being sufficient to prepare the future generations against war and violence. As a matter of fact, teachers and educators teach values such as fairness, compassion, truth and freedom to Others, but they also confront these values while transmitting them in classrooms. Furthermore, every form of value education is the foundation for mutual evaluation of moral and social principles. To transmit moral, political and social values from one generation to another is not an ideological process. Schools and universities are not supposed to be ideological institutions where individuals learn to become loyal and obedient. Here resides the difference between Tagore’s Santiniketan and Hitler’s National Socialist German Workers’ Party. While Tagore invites us to consider the nature of education through a conscious relationship with nature and creativity, and as a path to bridge the gap between the educated and those who have not been educated, Nazi officers like Adolf Eichmann carried out mass murders while never permitting their consciousness to rise above the level of following rules and obeying orders. Building peace and transcending regional and global conflicts cannot be left entirely to the action and volition of political leaders. What is necessary herewith is not political governance, but moral leadership. Moreover, moral leadership cannot prevail by instrumental reason, namely, to work with the elements as means to an end. What we need here is a massive pedagogical enterprise as a mode of “cultivation” of humanity. The effort to peace building is, therefore, accompanied with a freedom from prejudice, exclusion and domination. An essential part of a definition and practice of a culture of peace is through education of non-violence that develops the quest for mutual understanding. This raises questions concerning the value of civic upbringing, as an individual process and as a process that a community goes through. Here education is not about learning facts, but to cultivate one’s judgment in order to be able to distinguish between the mediocre and the spiritually noble. If this is how things are in the context of the political, then education is not about repeating and imitating the already inherited values that are collectively accepted, but also about being able to create new values and norms in an autonomous way. It is certainly not ideological, but philosophical since it is exploration of constantly new questionings and a reactivation of the process of thinking. Such a process is an effective strategy for peace building in today’s world where pedagogy for peace is not something that is currently articulated and practised by the mainstream politicians, practitioners and researchers of international relations.

Q.151) what is the tone of the passage?

a) Informative

b) Indignant

c) Jaded

d) Pretentious

e) Vindictive

Q.152) Which is true according to the passage?

a) Modern world is with a vision of human society.

b) Self-educating process of humanity is an intricate process.

c) Education is no more foundation of mutual elevation of moral values.

d) Teaching methods should be a mode of “cultivation” of humanity.

e) Education is about repeating and imitating the already inherited values.

Q.153) What is the aim of education according to the author?

a) Fully cultured and well-educated.

b) Agitating violence in society.

c) It should possess moral insight.

d) It’s a imprudent of morals and academic values.

e) None of these.

Q.154) What is the idea about ‘paideia’ in the passage?

a) Squandering and officiate.

b) acquisition and transmission.

c) Forfeiting and embrace.

d) Mulcting and influence.

e) None of these.

Q.155) According to the passage, The effort to peace building is accompanied with a freedom from ?

I) Adoration

II) Prejudice

III) Exclusion

IV) Domination

a) Both III and IV

b) All I, IV and III

c) All IV, III and II

d) All I, II and III

e) All the above

Q.156) Which of the following is not mentioned in the passage?

a) UNESCO and UN assembly peace education promoted is not sufficient for future generation to prevent from war and violence.

b) Teachers and educators not only teach morals but they also confront these values while transmitting them.

c) Learn to manage anger and improve communication through skills such as listening, turn-taking, identifying needs.

d) Schools and universities are not supposed to be ideological institutions where individual learn to become loyal and obedient.

e) All the given statements are mentioned in the passage.

Q.157) Which of the following is false according to the passage?

a) Education is a conscious relationship between nature and creativity.

b) Education is not about learning facts alone.

c) Education helps us to identify which is morally right and wrong.

d) Education must be spread with seriousness and trustworthy

e) All the given statements are true.

Q.158) As used in the passage, Choose the synonym of the word “articulated”.

a) Stumble

b) Veil

c) Enunciate

d) Delude

e) Embellish

Q.159) As used in the passage, choose the synonym of the word “dominant”.

a) assertive

b) retiring

c) submissive

d) inferior

e) impotent

Q.160) As used in the passage, choose the antonym of the word “taming”.

a) docile

b) conquer

c) agitate

d) meek

e) willing

D.161-165): In the following questions, each sentence is written in different structures (a),(b),(c),(d) and has an error. Choose the option which is grammatically and structurally correct. If all the sentences are incorrect then Choose (e) as your answer.

Q.161) The police have initiates a probe but the sender had not identified till late on Wednesday evening.

a) The police have initiated a probe but the sender had not been identifies yet late on Wednesday evening.

b) The police have initiates a probe but the sender had not been identified and late on Wednesday evening.

c) The police have initiated a probe but the sender had not been identified till late on Wednesday evening.

d) The police has initiated a probe but the sender has not identified till late on Wednesday evening.

e) No improvement is required.

Q.162) The economy had been do well despite challenging global conditions, notching up a growth of 7.2% at the first half of 2016-17.

a) The economy had been doing well despite challenging global conditions, notching up a growth of 7.2% in the first half of 2016-17.

b) The economy had been do well despite challenging global conditions, notch up a growth of 7.2% in the first half of 2016-17.

c) The economy have been doing well despite challenging global conditions, notch up a growth of 7.2% in the first half of 2016-17.

d) The economy has been doing well despite challenging global conditions, notch up a growth of 7.2% at the first half of 2016-17.

e) No improvement is required.

Q.163) Intelligence officials has issued alerts over possible terror attacks since Republic Day celebrations across the country.

a) Intelligence officials have issues alerting over possible terror attacks since Republic Day celebrations across the country.

b) Intelligence officials has issued alerts over possible terror attack during Republic Day celebrations over the country.

c) Intelligence officials have issued alerting over possible terror attacks since Republic Day celebrations across the country.

d) Intelligence officials have issued alerts over possible terror attacks during Republic Day celebrations across the country.

e) No improvement is required.

Q.164) It is learnt that the party State unit have decided to kept a watch on the leaders who will be attend the convention.

a) It is learn that the party State unit has decided to kept a watch on the leaders who will attends the convention.

b) It is learnt that the party State unit has decided to keep a watch on the leaders who will attend the convention.

c) It is learning that the party State unit have decided to keep a watch on the leaders who will be attend the convention.

d) It is learnt that the party State unit had decided to keep a watch on the leaders who would attend the convention.

e) No improvement is required.

Q.165) In some outfits there are some of elements of fabrics and embroidery which are seen on garments worn by women from the hills.

a) In some outfit there are some elements of fabrics and embroideries which were seen on garments worn by women from the hills.

b) In some outfits there are some of elements of fabrics and embroideries are seen on garments worn by women from the hills.

c) In some outfits there are some elements of fabrics and embroideries which were seen at garment worn by women from the hills.

d) In some outfits there are some elements of fabrics and embroideries which are seen on garments worn by women under the hills.

e) No improvement is required.

D.166-170): Below there are five sentences, out of which four are related to the same theme /concept. Find out the odd sentence which is irrelevant to the theme.

Q.166) a) Indian golfer Sharmila Nicollet has won a Twitter poll to claim a playing spot in the 2017 ShopRite LPGA Classic.

b) Nicollet rode a huge wave of support on social media to win the poll by nine percentage points ahead of America’s Blair O’Neal.

c) Nicollet enjoyed the support of a Twitter campaign, labelled #GetSharmilaTo LPGA.

d) Sharmila thanked her fans on Twitter and later she was overwhelmed by the support she got from fans and supporters.

e) Nicollet was the youngest Indian golfer to qualify for the Ladies European Tour, when she did so as a 20 year old.

Q.167) a) Historical references about the Kullu valley dates back to ancient Hindu literary works of RamayanaMahabharata and the Puranas.

b) Kullu is an open valley with panoramic views and majestic hills covered with Deodar and Pine trees.

c) Kullu is a well developed city of Himachal Pradesh where flocks of tourists come to enjoy the best of nature.

d) The overwhelming landscapes, amazing hospitality of the inhabitants with different culture and ethnicity make Kullu a preferred destination.

e) You can enjoy a perfect holiday here in this beautiful place and if you want to know more about it then go through the Kullu travel guide.

Q.168) a) An official in the Indian Civil Service, William Crooke was a pioneering ethnographer and historian who collected a remarkable number of folktales from rural North India.

b) For a long time, folklore remained a part of the oral tradition and was not taken seriously.

c) The documentary series about the history of India charts the coming of Greek to the subcontinent and one of the greatest ages of world civilisation.

d) In India, apart from the multitude of languages, the story contends with the various cultures. As it moves from one teller to another, the basic structure may be retained but cultural variations are introduced.

e) While most of the stories were published in the North Indian Notes and Queries (NINQ), of which Crooke was editor, many remained unpublished.

Q.169) a) An AI-powered Chatbot can respond to the most common HR queries and it can schedule the meetings with you and your HR.

b) AI enables personalised learning programmes based on employee information skill set, experience, behaviours and learning patterns.

c) AI machines are gradually developing the intelligence that is necessary to source the right fit or predict the next move and help HR professionals take intelligent decisions.

d) HR leaders will need to begin experimenting with all facets of AI to deliver value to their organizations.

e) Artificial Intelligence (AI), which represents an area in technology that simplifies the way we do things, is being increasingly adopted while carrying out HR functions.

Q.170) a) Following various business failures, Nobel’s father moved to Saint Petersburg  and grew successful there as a manufacturer of machine tools and explosives.

b) Nobel travelled for much of his business life, maintaining companies in various countries in Europe and North America and keeping a permanent home in Paris.

c) Despite the lack of formal secondary and tertiary level education, Nobel gained proficiency in six languages.

d) The Nobel Prize is an often-politicized award that is criticized for increasing evidence of bias and possibly even corruption.

e) An offshoot of this research resulted in Nobel’s invention of ballistite, the precursor of many modern smokeless powder explosives and still used as a rocket propellant.

D.171-180): A sentence or a part of the sentence is highlighted. Four alternatives are given as substitutions for the highlighted part, one of which will improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative. In case no improvement is needed, choose the option “No improvement is required” i.e. (e).

Q.171) According to sources, more than six Ministers would dropped from the Council of Ministers, and both old and new faces will be inducted in their place.

a) dropped from

b) drop out from

c) will be dropped from

d) would be dropped

e) No improvement is required.

Q.172) The clash took place over acquiring land for construction of a PGCIL sub-station in the area.

a) of construction to

b) of construction of

c) for construction to

d) to construct of

e) No improvement is required.

Q.173) Though it was a single blast resulting in one casualty, the presence of Maoists in the region has become cause of concern for the police.

a) a causes for concerns

b) cause of concerns

c) a cause for concern

d) causes for concern

e) No improvement is required.

Q.174) The festivities started with arrival of Kanimangalam Sastha, accompanied by percussion ensembles, in the morning.

a) with the arrival of

b) at arrival of

c) of arrival at

d) of the arrival of

e) No improvement is required.

Q.175) The first report after conducting the inspection should be filling up before the government concerned by December 31.

a) will be filled

b) could filled up

c) might be fill out

d) should be filed

e) No improvement is required.

Q.176) The demonstration took place despite the authority suspending classes at three volatile educational institutions in the district.

a) an authority suspended

b) the authorities suspending

c) an authority suspends

d) the authority suspends

e) No improvement is required.

Q.177) A Bill that proposes such sweeping changes passed without any hearing, and giving hardly any time for the lawmakers to study or discuss it.

a) changes was passed

b) the change was passed

c) the changes passed

d) a changes was passed

e) No improvement is required.

Q.178) The banking regulator said non-adherence to the instructions and timelines specified under the framework will attract monetary penalties.

a) will attracts

b) to attracts the

c) to attracted the

d) would attract the

e) No improvement is required.

Q.179) The lenders will also to close unprofitable branches and put in place stronger systems for credit appraisals and management of non-performing assets (NPAs).

a) would closed the

b) has to closed an

c) have to close

d) had closed the

e) No improvement is required.

Q.180) Two contract workers was attacked by alleged right-wing goons while transporting cows in Jewar here on Thursday.

a) are attacks to the

b) attacked by the

c) was attacked the

d) were attacked by

e) No improvement is required.

D.181-185): Rearrange the following six sentences (A), (B), (C), (D), (E) and (F) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph and then answer the questions given below.

A) The railway authorities too book the consignment for delivery to the consignee in the name of a fictitious consignor.

B) A number of arecanut traders are transporting the commodity by rail rather than by road to evade taxes, according to sources in the Commercial Taxes Department.

C) In the last financial year, the department has been able to increase revenue four times by inspecting lorry consignments at its various check-posts.

D) The traders often book the arecanut consignment as other commodities, and thus evade paying commercial taxes on the cash crop.

E) When the department got wind of this, it began a concerted effort to curb the transportation of arecanut by rail in the past year.

F) Sources said arecanut is one of the major commodities on which there has been maximum tax evasion in the past decade.

Q.181) Which of the following would be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement?

a) D

b) F

c) A

d) B

e) C

Q.182) Which of the following would be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement?

a) F

b) A

c) B

d) C

e) D

Q.183) Which of the following would be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement?

a) E

b) D

c) F

d) A

e) C

Q.184) Which of the following would be the FOURTH sentence after rearrangement?

a) E

b) D

c) F

d) A

e) B

Q.185) Which of the following would be the FIFTH sentence after rearrangement?

a) A

b) C

c) E

d) D

e) B

D.186-190): In each of the following sentences there are two blank spaces. Below each sentence there are five pairs of words denoted by (a), (b), (c), (d) and (e). Find out which pair of words can be filled up in the blanks in the sentences in the same sequence to make the sentence meaningfully complete.

Q.186) Emmanuel Macron’s______ victory in the French presidential election has ____ a sigh of relief not just in his country, but in others as well.

a) latter, stimulated

b) decisive, elicited

c) final, evoked

d) determined, raised

e) first, educed

Q.187) A concrete step towards ______ a law was made when the Prevention of Torture Bill, 2010, was passed by the LokSabha in 2010, but it was ______ to a Select Committee in the Rajya sabha.

a) applying, offered

b) passing, related

c) enacting, referred

d) evoking, mentioned

e) supporting, applied

Q.188) Aadhaar-like platforms _____ innovation by _____ Big Data for governments and businesses alike.

a) cause, editing

b) resultant, adjusting

c) development, fashioning

d) catalyse, tailoring

e) produce, conditioning

Q.189) Andal, through her Tiruppavai, shows us the spirit in which we should worship and what our ______ must be when we _____ the lord.

a) thing, close

b) attitude, approach

c) behaviour, near

d) action, extant

e) doing, around

Q.190) A special court will decide whether to take ______ of a CBI charge sheet against Himachal Pradesh Chief Minister Virbhadra Singh for allegedly _______ disproportionate assets worth around 10crore. (check)

a) thought, grouping

b) appreciation, lumping

c) notion, gathering

d) recognition, scattering

e) cognisance, amassing

D.191-200): In the following passage there are words highlighted, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each four words are suggested marked as (a), (b), (c) and (d) out of which only one word fits in. If the given word itself is appropriate mark your answer as (e).

The present geopolitical situation in East Asia may have looked (191) unfavourable, even compelling, for Japanese Prime Minister Shinzo Abe to set a 2020 target to rewrite the country’s controversial post-war pacifist Constitution. Nevertheless, the move to (192) allow legal recognition to the country’s military, which has already grown to assume international commitments, must clear many legislative (193) outcomes. The country’s 1947 Constitution has been at the centre of (194) same narratives, in much the same way as the contentious historical accounts on Japan’s pre-eminent part in the Second World War. The document drafted by the Supreme Command of the Allied Powers (SCAP) divided the Japanese Diet between the conservatives and nationalists on the one hand and the social democrats on the other. Whereas the former view the Constitution as an (195) imposition on Tokyo, the latter see the text as a (196) canon of progressive and forward-looking principles. At the heart of these divisions lies Article 9 through which Japan (197) allowed the use of force in the resolution of international disputes and proclaimed never to maintain land, sea and air forces. The (198) legislative merely made provision for the country’s own defence, which resulted in the establishment of the Self-Defence Forces (SDF). However, the beginnings of a gradual shift away from a strict commitment to pacifism were soon to become evident. The 1954 Mutual Defence Assistance Agreement between Tokyo and Washington assured Japan external protection in exchange for the installation of permanent U.S. military bases in the country. The quid pro quo could hardly have been an (199) solution against an assertive nationalism following Japan’s economic and industrial triumph through the decades. If anything, an accent on national sovereignty underscored the need for a more (200) idealistic interpretation of the essence of pacifism in relation to the growing military might of neighbouring China.

Q.191) a) deleterious

b) acute

c) conducive

d) adamant

e) No Improvement is required.

Q.192) a) accord

b) deny

c) withhold

d) agree

e) No Improvement is required.

Q.193) a) advantages

b) failures

c) decisions

d) hurdles

e) No Improvement is required.

Q.194) a) opposing

b) competing

c) different

d) argumentative

e) No Improvement is required.

Q.195) a) benefit

b) absolution

c) charge

d) assessment

e) No Improvement is required.

Q.196) a) system

b) methods

c) pattern

d) fashion

e) No Improvement is required.

Q.197) a) renounced

b) announced

c) retaliated

d) accepted

e) No Improvement is required.

Q.198) a) prohibition

b) sanction

c) constitution

d) charter

e) No Improvement is required.

Q.199) a) toxin

b) problem

c) antidote

d) answer

e) No Improvement is required.

Q.200) a) empirical

b) sober

c) quixotic

d) pragmatic

e) No Improvement is required.

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