SBI PO – PREVIOUS YEAR PAPERS

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Grand Test 3

REASONING

(Directions.1-5) Each of the questions below each of a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it you have to decide whether the data provided pie statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read the statements and

Give answer

1) In which direction is Ravi facing

I. Ashok is to the right of Ravi

II. Samir is sitting opposite of Ashok facing north

a) If the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question

b) If the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while, the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question

c) If the data either in the statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question

d) If the data even in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question

e) If the data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

2) How M is related to K?

I. The sister of K is the mother of N who is daughter of M

II. P is the sister of M

a) If the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question

b) If the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while, the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question

c) If the data either in the statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question

d) If the data even in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question

e) If the data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

3)  Is D brother of T?

I. T is the sister of M and K

II. K is the brother of D

a) If the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question

b) If the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while, the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question

c) If the data either in the statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question

d) If the data even in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question

e) If the data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

4) How many sons does P have?

I. S and T are brothers of M

II. The mother of T is P who has only one daughter

a) If the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question

b) If the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while, the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question

c) If the data either in the statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question

d) If the data even in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question

e) If the data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

5) Who is the tallest among P, Q, R, S and T?

I. R is taller than Q and T

II. T is taller than S and P and S is taller than Q and R

a) If the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question

b) If the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while, the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question

c) If the data either in the statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question

d) If the data even in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question

e) If the data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

(Directions.6-10) In each question below are four statements followed by four conclusions numbered I, II, III and IV. You have to take the four given statements to be true even if they seem to be t variance with commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the four given statements disregarding commonly known facts. Then decide which of the answers a), b), c), d) and e) is the correct answer and indicate it on the answer sheet.

6) Statements:

All stones are pearls.

Some pearls are shells.

Some shells are boxes.

No box is container.

Conclusions:

I. Some stones are shells

II. No pearl is container

III. No shell is container

IV. Some pearls are containers

a) Only II follows

b) Only II and III follow

c) Only either II or IV follows

d) Only III follows

e) None follows

7) Statements:

Some schools are colleges.

Some colleges are hostels.

No hostel is office.

All offices are institutes.

Conclusions:

I. No hostel is institute

II. Some hostels are schools

III. Some hostels are institutes

IV. Some offices are colleges

a) Only I follows

b) Only II & III follow

c) Only IV follows

d) Only either I or III follows

e) None of these

8) Statements:

Some pins are needles.

Some threads are needles.

All needles are nails.

All nails are hammers

Conclusions:

I. Some pins are hammers

II. Some threads are nails.

III. Some pins are threads

IV. No pin is thread

a) Only I, II and either III or IV follow

b) Only III and IV follow

c) Only I and II follow

d) All follow

e) None of these

9) Statements:

Some chairs are rooms.

No room is sofa.

All sofas are tables.

Some tables are desks.

Conclusions:

I. Some sofas are desks

II. No room is table

III. Some chairs are tables

IV. No desk is room

a) None follows

b) Only I follows

c) Only either II or III follows

d) Only III and IV follow

e) All follow

10) Statements:

Some rings are chains.

All chains are bangles.

All bracelets are bangles.

Some bangles are pendants.

Conclusions:

I. Some rings are bangles

II. Some chains are pendants

III. Some  bracelets are rings

IV. No pendant is ring

a) None follows

b) Only I follows

c) Only II and III follow

d) Only IV follows

e) None of these

(Directions.11-15) Read the following information carefully and then answer the questions given below it.

Following are the conditions for selecting coordinator for a training programmer on Industrial Relations. The candidate must:

Be a post – graduate in Psychology or in Personnel Management

Have worked as Personnel Manager in an organisation for at least 10 years or been teaching in a university an instituted for at least 6 years

Have worked as guest speaker in similar Programme

Not be less than 40 years as on 1 April, 2009

The case of candidate who satisfies all the conditions except:

I. At B above but has obtained Ph.D in one of the fields A and has at least 5 years work experience or 3 years experience should be referred to Deputy Director

II. At C above but has more than 7 years teaching experience should be referred to Director.

III. At D above but has working experience of at least 5 years in an American company may be selected.

Based on the above conditions and the information provided in each of the questions below, decide the course of action in each case. You are not to assume anything. If the data provided is not adequate to decide the given course of action your answer will be ‘data inadequate’. These cases are given to you as on 1 April, 2009.

11) Alok Desai is a post- graduate in Psychology and has been teaching in an Institute for last 5 years and has coordinated such Programme in the past. He was 39 years old as on 10 March, 2008.
a) Don’t select b) Refer to Director c) Data inadequate d) Select e) None of these
12) Samir Malkani is a Postgraduate in Personnel Management and was born on 15 Jan., 1965. He has been working in a company for the last 12 years as Personnel Manager
a) Refer to Director b) Refer to Deputy Director c) Select d) Don’t select e) None of these
13) Usha Sodani is Ph.D in Personnel Management and has been teaching in an Institute for last 10 years. She has worked as a guest speaker in a similar Programme and was born on 26 Aug, 1966.
a) Refer to Director b) Refer to Deputy Director c) Do not select d) Data inadequate e) None of these
14) Sudha Malhotra is a post graduate in Psychology and has been teaching for last 15 years. She has not worked as guest speaker in similar programmes in the past.
a) Data inadequate b) Select c) Refer to Director d) Don’t select e) None of these
15) Mrinal Kelkar is a Post – graduate in Business Management and has been working a Personnel Manager for the last 12 years. He has worked as guest speaker in similar Programme in the past. He will be 43 years old as on 5 May, 2011
a) Refer to Deputy Director b) Refer to Director c) Don’t select d) Select e) None of these


(Directions.16-20) Below is given a passage followed by several possible inferences which can be drawn from the facts stated in the passage. You have to examine each inference separately in the context of the passage and decide upon its degree of truth or falsity.

                In India the asbestos industry is growing and employs more than 15,000 people in 75 units which are spread over several states like Gujarat, Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, Andhra Pradesh etc. Surprisingly, advanced countries are banning cancer causing asbestos products, multinational companies are from those countries which are setting up units in developing countries like India. One reason beinglack of awareness in the society and indifference of the government machinery of these countries. Prolonged exposure to asbestos dust and fibres can cause lung cancer but most workers in India are too afraid to protest for fear of losing jobs. Some of these factories are operating in Mumbai. Quite a few of the factories in India are not known to take adequate precautions to protect workers from asbestos dust.

The Government is taking several steps to provide medical inspection of workers. In fact it has amended factories act to extend the provision to even those factories employing less than 10 workers.

16) The asbestos industry is one of the largest industries in India

a) If the inference is ‘definitely true”, e., it properly follows from the statement of facts given

b) If the inference is “probably true” though not “definitely true” in the light of the facts given

c) If the “data are inadequate” e., from the facts given you cannot say whether the inference is likely to be true or false.

d) If the inference is “probably false”, though not “definitely false” in the light of the facts given

e) If the inference is “definitely false”, i.e., it cannot possibly be drawn from the facts given or it contradicts the given facts.

17) The asbestos industries in India are located in few metropolitan pockets only

a) If the inference is ‘definitely true”, e., it properly follows from the statement of facts given

b) If the inference is “probably true” though not “definitely true” in the light of the facts given

c) If the “data are inadequate” e., from the facts given you cannot say whether the inference is likely to be true or false.

d) If the inference is “probably false”, though not “definitely false” in the light of the facts given

e) If the inference is “definitely false”, i.e., it cannot possibly be drawn from the facts given or it contradicts the given facts.

18) The advanced countries are concerned and careful to protect health hazards of its people

a) If the inference is ‘definitely true”, e., it properly follows from the statement of facts given

b) If the inference is “probably true” though not “definitely true” in the light of the facts given

c) If the “data are inadequate” e., from the facts given you cannot say whether the inference is likely to be true or false.

d) If the inference is “probably false”, though not “definitely false” in the light of the facts given

e) If the inference is “definitely false”, i.e., it cannot possibly be drawn from the facts given or it contradicts the given facts.

19) The demand for asbestos products appears to be growing in India.

a) If the inference is ‘definitely true”, e., it properly follows from the statement of facts given

b) If the inference is “probably true” though not “definitely true” in the light of the facts given

c) If the “data are inadequate” e., from the facts given you cannot say whether the inference is likely to be true or false.

d) If the inference is “probably false”, though not “definitely false” in the light of the facts given

e) If the inference is “definitely false”, i.e., it cannot possibly be drawn from the facts given or it contradicts the given facts.

20) The Governments of developing countries appear to be not taking appropriate measures while granting permission to set up production units of multinational companies in their countries.

a) If the inference is ‘definitely true”, e., it properly follows from the statement of facts given

b) If the inference is “probably true” though not “definitely true” in the light of the facts given

c) If the “data are inadequate” e., from the facts given you cannot say whether the inference is likely to be true or false.

d) If the inference is “probably false”, though not “definitely false” in the light of the facts given

e) If the inference is “definitely false”, i.e., it cannot possibly be drawn from the facts given or it contradicts the given facts.

(Directions.21-25) Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions:

A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting around a circle facing the centre but not necessarily in the same order.

(i) B sits second to left of H’s husband. No female is an immediate neighbour of B.

(ii) D’s daughter sits second to right of F. F is the sister of G. F is not an immediate neighbour of H’s husband.

(iii) Only one person sits between A and F. A is the father of G. H’s brother D sits to the immediate left of H’s mother. Only one person sits between H’s mother and E.

(iv) Only one person sits between H and G. G is the mother of C. G is not an immediate neighbour of E.

21) What is position of A with respect to his mother-in-law?
a) Immediate left b) Third to the right c) Third to the left d) Second to the right e) Fourth to the left
22) Who amongst the following is D’s daughter?
a) B b) C c) E d) G e) H
23) What is the position of A with respect to his grandchild?
a) Immediate right b) Third to the right c) Third to the left d) Second to the left e) Fourth to the left
24) How many people sit between G and her uncle?
a) One b) Two c) Three d) Four e) More than four
25) Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on the given information and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
a) F b) C c) E d) H e) G

26) Read the following information carefully and answer the questions which follow:

Small brands are now looking beyond local grocery stores and are tying up with Supermarkets such as Big Bazaar to pull their business out of troubled waters.

Question: Which of the following can be inferred from the given information? An inference is something that is not directly stated but can be inferred from the given information

a) Merchandise of smaller brands would not be available at local grocery stores in the near future

b) Smaller brands cannot compete with bigger ones in a supermarket set-up

c) There is a perception among small brands that sale in a supermarket is higher than that of small grocery stores

d) Supermarkets generate more revenue by selling products of bigger brands as compared to the smaller ones

e) Smaller brand have always had more tie-ups with supermarkets as compared to small grocery stores.

(Directions.27-30) These questions are based on the information given below and the sentences labeled (a), (b), (c), (d), (e) and (f) as given below.

Small brands are now looking beyond local grocery stores and are tying up with Supermarkets such as Big Bazaar to pull their business out of troubled waters.

(a) A smaller brand manufacturing a certain product of quality comparable with that of a bigger brand, makes much more profit from the local grocery stores than from the supermarkets.

(b) As the supermarkets have been set up only in bigger cities at present, this step would fail to deliver results in the smaller cities.

(c) Supermarkets help the smaller brands to break into newer markets withoutinvesting substantially in distribution.

(d) Supermarkets charge the smaller brands 10% higher than the amount charged to the bigger brands.

(e) Being outnumbered by the bigger brands, visibility of the smaller brands at local grocery stores is much lower as compared to the supermarkets.

(f) Smaller brands are currently making substantial losses in their businesses.

27) Which of the statements numbered a), b), c), d), e) and f) can be assumed from the facts / information given in the statement? (An assumption is something supposed or taken for granted)
a) Only a) b) Only b) c) Both b) and c) d) Both d) and e) e) Only f)
28) Which of the statements numbered a), b), c), e) and f) represents a disadvantage of the small grocery stores over the supermarkets from the perspective of a smaller brand?
a) Only a) b) Only c) c) Only e) d) Only f) e) Both b) and c)
29) Which of the statements a), b), c), d) and e) mentioned above represents a reason for the shift from local grocery stores to supermarkets by the smaller brands?
a) Only a) b) Only b) c) Only d) d) Both a) and d) e) Both c) and e)
30) Which of the statements numbered a), b), c), e) and f) mentioned above would prove that the step taken by the smaller brands (of moving to supermarkets) may not necessarily be correct?
a) Only a) b) Only c) c) Only e) d) Only f) e) Both b) and e)

(Directions.31-35) Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions:

A word and number arrangement machine when given an input line of words and numbers rearranges them following a particular rule in each step. The following is an illustration of input and rearrangement. (All the numbers given in the arrangement are two digit numbers)

And Step VII is the last step of the rearrangement of the above input as the desired arrangement is obtained.As per the rules followed in the above steps, find out in each of the following questions the appropriate step for the given input.

31)  Input: 86 open shut door 31 49 always 45

How many steps will be required to complete the rearrangement?

a) Five                        b) Six                           c) Seven                          d) Four                     e) None of these

32) Step III of an input: 25 yes 37 enemy joy defeat 52 46 which of the following is definitely the input?

a) Enemy 25 joy defeat yes 52 37 46

b) 37 enemy 25 joy yes defeat 52 46

c) Enemy joy defeat 25 52 yes 46 37

d) Cannot be determined

e) None of these

33) Step II of an Input: 18 win 71 34 now if victory 61 How many more steps will be required to compete the rearrangement?

a) Three                        b) Four                         c) Five                         d) Six                         e) More than six

34) Input: where 47 59 12 are they going 39

Which of the following steps will be the last but one?

a) VII                         b) IV                         c) V                         d) VIII                         e) None of these

35) Step II of an input: 33 store 81 75 full of goods 52

Which of the following will be step VI?

a) 33 store 52 of 75 81 full goods

b) 33 store 52 of 75 full 81 goods

c) 33 store 52 of 75 goods 81 full

d) There will be no such step

e) None of these

36)It has been reported in recent years that a very large number of seats in the engineering colleges in the country remain vacant at the end of the admission session. Which of the following may be the probable cause of the above effect?

a) There has been a considerable decrease in hiring of engineering graduates due to economic slowdown in the recent years

b) Students have always preferred to complete graduation in three years time instead of four years for engineering

c) The Govt. has recently decided to provide post qualification professional training to all engineering graduates at its own cost

d) There has always been a very poor success rate among the engineering students

e) None of these

37)Majority of the students who appeared in the final examination of post graduate course in management in the local college have secured first class which is comparatively higher than the performance of students of other management colleges in the state. Which of the following may indicate that the results are not in line with the general trend?

a) The students of the local college are qualitatively better than those of other colleges

b) The authorities of the other management colleges in the state are stricter in their standard of elevation for their students

c) The students of other management colleges in the state performed better than the students of the local college in all the previous examinations

d) The local management college recently retrenched many of its regular faculty members

e) None of these

38) There has been a spate of rail accidents in India in the recent months killing large numbers of passengers and injuring many more. This has raised serious doubts about the railway’s capability of providing safety to travelers.

Which of the following statements substantiates the views expressed in the above statement?

a) Indian Railways has come to be known to provide best passenger comfort in the recent years

b) People have no option other than travelling by rail over long distances

c) The railway tracks at many places have been found to be stressed due to waer nd tear in the recent times

d) Local residents are always the first to provide a helping hand to the passengers in the event of such disasters

e) None of these

39) There has been a considerable drop in sales of four wheelers during the past six months when compared to the number of four wheelers sold during this period last year.

Which of the following can the probable cause of the above phenomenon?

(a) The govt. has imposed higher excise duty on four wheelers at the beginning of this year

(b) The petrol prices have risen considerably during the past eight months

(c) The rate of interest on home and car loans have been rising for the past seven months

a) All a), b) and c)                         b) a) and c) Only                         c) b) and c) Only

d) b) Only                                  e) a) only

40) A very large number of technically qualified young Indians are coming out of colleges every year though there are not enough opportunities for them to get gainful employment. Which of the following contradicts the views expressed in the above statement?

a) Technically qualified persons are far superior to those with standard degrees like BA / B. Sc / B. Com etc.

b) The Govt. has not done effective perspective planning for engaging technically qualified personnel while authorizing the setting up of technical colleges

c) A huge gap exists between the level of competence of technically qualified graduates and requirement of the industry

d) Majority of the technically qualified persons are migrating from India to developed countries for better opportunities

e) None of these

(Directions.41-45) Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions.

Eight trains bound for eight different cities are stationed on eight different platforms numbered one to eight.

Train to Delhi leaves from Platform no. 6. Two trains are stationed between the trains bound for Kolkata and the train for Delhi. The train leaving for Jammu is not stationed immediately next to either Kolkata or Delhi bound trains. Trains bound for Mumbai and Patna are stationed on adjacent platforms. The trains bound for neither Patna nor Mumbai is stationed on Platform NO. 4. Only one train is stationed between the train bound for Patna and the train bound for Varanasi. The train bound for Amritsar is not stationed immediately next to the Varanasi bound train. The train for Dehradun is not stationed on an odd numbered platform and is parked towards the left of Amritsar bound train (not necessarily to the immediate left).

41) What is the position of the Dehradun bound train with respect to the Patna bound train?

a) Immediate left                      b) Fifth to the left                c) Third to the right

d) Immediate right                   e) Third to the left

42) Train bound to which of the following cities leaves from Platform No. 5?

a) Jammu                          b) Varanasi                        c) Amritsar

d) Patna                             e) Cannot be determined

43) Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on the given arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?

a) Varanasi                       b) Patna                             c) Jammu

d) Mumbai                        e) Kolkata

44) Train to Mumbai leaves from which of the following platform numbers?

a) 1            b) 5                 c) 7             d) 2                e) 8

45) Which of the following is true with respect to the given arrangement?

a) Train to Jammu leaves from Platform no. 4

b) Train to Patna leaves from an even numbered platform

c) There is only one platform between the platforms from which trains bound for Delhi and Patna leave

d) Train leaving to Mumbai is stationed second to the right of Delhi bound train

e) Trains to Amritsar and Jammu leave from adjacent platforms

(Directions.46-50) In each of the following questions , a statement is given  followed by two course of action. A course of action is taken for improvement follow up etc, read the statements carefully and then given your suitable answer from the given options.

46) Statement: Jaundice and typhoid are on the rise in ABC’ city.

Course of action:

The Government must increase medical facilities as soon as possible.

The Government should take steps to clean the city.

a) if only course of action I follows.

b) if only course of action II follows.

c) if either course of action I or II follows.

d) if both course of action I and II follows.

e) if neither course of action I nor II follow.

47) Statement: Three girls in a prestigious university campus were molested by a group of people.

Course of action:

Police must catch and put them behind the bar.

The university authority should provide security on the campus for the safety of the students.

a) if only course of action I follows.

b) if only course of action II follows.

c) if either course of action I or II follows.

d) if both course of action I and II follows.

e) if neither course of action I nor II follow.

48) Statement: False currency is being supplied to India through buses that play between India and Pakistan.

Course of action:

Indian Government should stop the bus service

Indian police should check the bus properly and keep proper vigilance in the bus.

a) if only course of action I follows.

b) if only course of action II follows.

c) if either course of action I or II follows.

d) if both course of action I and II follows.

e) if neither course of action I nor II follow.

49) Statement: In a ‘No Tobacco’ day function, it was observed that the number of smokers is increasing rapidly.

Course of action:

The Government should highlight through media the harms caused due to tobacco.

The Government should ban smoking.

a) if only course of action I follows.

b) if only course of action II follows.

c) if either course of action I or II follows.

d) if both course of action I and II follows.

e) if neither course of action I nor II follow.

50) Statement: Primary teachers are on indefinite strike.

Course of action:

Alternative arrangement should be made, for teachers on adhoc basis

The Government should meet the demands of the teachers.

a) if only course of action I follows.

b) if only course of action II follows.

c) if either course of action I or II follows.

d) if both course of action I and II follows.

e) if neither course of action I nor II follow.

APTITUDE

(Directions .51-55) Study the graph and answer the questions given below:

The graph, below shows sales of different colours of Brand – X refrigerator for the years 2009, 2010 and 2011

51) Over the given three years which has been the highest selling colour; and what percentage of volume did it account for?

a) Blue, 21%                         b) White, 25%                     c) White, 26%

d) Lemon, 28%                   e) None of these

52) Sale of which colour(s) of refrigerator registered the highest percentage increase between 2010 and 2011?

a) Blue                       b) Lemon                       c) Red and Blue

d) Grey                      e) None of these

53) What is the share of sales volume accounted for by the year 2011?

a) 43.26%                  b) 46.14%                      c) 44.16%

d) 41.65%                   e) None of these

54) What is approximately the ratio of sales of Red, Lemon and White refrigerators, taken together, in 2010 to that of the combined total sales of Blue and Grey ones in 2009 and 2011 taken together?

a) 9: 10                      b) 10: 9                     c) 11: 12

d) 1: 12                      e) None of these

55) How many instances are there in the graph when the difference in sale of refrigerators was greater or lesser, by 35% or more as compared to the previous year?

a) 4                   b) 5              c) 6                d) 7                e) None of these

(Directions. 56-60) Study the information below to answer these questions.

A certain movie commenced its run in two theatres Metro and Batra – simultaneously, and had a run of 30 weeks in the former theatre and 20 weeks in the latter. At Metro it earned an average of Rs. 1.52 lakh per show for the first seven weeks with four shows in a day. In the next ten weeks it earned Rs. 1.32 lakh per show. In the subsequent five weeks the earning was Rs. 1.18 lakh per show. For the remaining weeks the number of shows dropped to two per day and the earning was Rs. 0.98 per show. Batra had 2 shows per day throughout the movie’s run but its daily earning was 1/3rd of Metro’s.

56) How much did the movie earn in all, in the first four days of the seventh week of its run?

a) Rs. 24 lakh                   b) Rs. 26 lakh                  c) Rs. 32.43 lakh

d) Rs. 20 lakh                  e) None of these

57) By how much percent (approximately) did the earning per week of the movie drop from the 17th week to the 25th week?

a) 80%                   b) 72%               c) 89%                d) Cannot be determined                   e) None of these

58) How many seats were there in Metro and Batra respectively, if their ticket prices are in the ratio 7: 6 and Batra charges Rs. 150 per picket? (Assume 100% occupancy in the first week)

a) 786 and 546        b) 868 and 675        c) 877 and 655       d) 868 and 747         e) None of these

59) If each theatre pays 35 percent tax on the revenue, the post – tax earnings of Metro in the first 10 weeks was

a) Rs. 1.43 crore                           b) Rs. 2.65 crore                  c) Rs. 4.08 crore

d) Cannot be determined           e) None of these

60) What is the total post-tax earnings of Metro during the film’s entire run?

a) Rs. 612.61 lakh                         b) Rs. 942.48 lakh                    c) Rs. 204.2 lakh

d) Rs. 829.92 lakh                       e) None of these

(Directions.61-65): The following graph shows percentage distribution of key business segments of three FMCG companies. The companies cater to a number of consumer product segments like health supplements, oral care, digestives, hair care, skin care, home care and foods.

61) If for company A, sales from health care amounts to Rs. 150 million, then what is the sales amount from personal care for company A?

a) Rs. 270 billion                      b) Rs. 270 million                       c) Rs. 360 million

d) Rs. 135 million                     e) None of these

62) If the sales of company B is Rs. 165 crore and that of company C is Rs. 190 crore and profit on sale of home care products is 6% for both the companies, then what is the ratio of profit from home care products of company B to that of company C?

a) 1.30              b) 0.62               c) 0.89                 d) 0.77                    e) None of these

63) If the total sales of companies A, B and C are Rs. 100 crore, Rs. 75 crore and Rs. 65 crore respectively, what is the average amount of sales from food products of these companies?

a) Rs. 14.30 crore                          b) Rs. 16.35 crore                       c) Rs. 15.00 crore

d) Rs. 18.00 crore                         e) None of these

64) In company C, sales from food products is what percent more than sales from home care products?

a) 20%            b) 9%              c) 10%                   d) 8%                     e) None of these

65) Health care vertical includes health supplements, oral acre and digestives. If for company A, oral care sales amount to Rs. 10 crore which is 20% of health care sales, then what is the total sale o company A?

a) Rs. 50 crore                         b) Rs. 170.28 crore                      c) Rs. 168.32 crore

d) Rs. 116.28 crore                 e) None of these

(Directions 66-70) Study the following graph carefully to answer the questions that follow:

66) What was the difference between the total monthly income of Arun in all the years together and Suman’s monthly income in the year 2007?

a) Rs. 1.25 lakhs                            b) Rs. 1.15 lakhs                      c) Rs. 11.4 lakhs

d) Rs. 12.4 lakhs                            e) None of these

67) What was the percentage increase in the monthly income of Jyoti in the year 2008 as compared to previous year?

a) 50                           b) 150                       c) 160                    d) 60                    e) None of these

68) Monthly income of Suman in the year 2009 was approximately what percentage of the monthly income of Jyoti in the year 2010?

a) 72                           b) 89                         c) 83                     d) 67                     e) 95

69) In which year was the difference between Jyoti’s monthly income and Arun’s monthly income second highest?

a) 2005                     b) 2006                    c) 2007                 d) 2009                e) 2010

70) What is the respective ratio between Arun’s monthly income in the year 2006, Suman’s monthly income in the year 2007 and Jyoti’s monthly income in the year 2005?

a) 6: 3: 5                  b) 6: 4: 5                    c) 5: 6: 4              d) 5: 4: 7              e) None of these

Directions (71-75) Study the following pie – charts carefully to answer the questions that follow:-

71) What is the respective ratio of total number of children from village O to the number of children attending school from the same village?

a) 204: 145            b) 179: 131                   c) 167: 111                  d) 266: 137            e) None of these

72) The number of children attending school from village L is approximately what percent of the total number of children from that village?

a) 78                       b) 72                             c) 57                            d) 84                      e) 66

73) What is the number of children attending school from village N?

a) 145                     b) 159                           c) 170                         d) 164                      e) None of these

74) What is the total number of children from villages P and M together?

a) 1422                 b) 1242                          c) 1122                       d) 1211                     e) None of these

75) What is the respective ratio of total number of children from village L and N together to the number of children attending school from the village M, O and P together?

a) 987: 1001        b) 510: 1073                c) 1073: 510              d) 1001: 987             e) None of these

Directions (76-80) Study the table carefully to answer the questions that follow:

76) What was the percent increase in the number students appeared from institute – D in the year 2007 as compared to previous year?

a) 78                      b) 74                             c) 64                          d) 174                          e) 60

77) In which year was the difference between the number of students appeared and qualified the entrance test second lowest from institute – C?

a) 2005                b) 2006                       c) 2007                      d) 2008                        e) 2009

78) What was the difference between the number of students appeared in entrance exam from institute – B in the year 2007 and the number of students qualified the entrance test from institute – D in the year 2008?

a) 113                   b) 104                           c) 107                          d) 111                           e) None of these

79) What was the average number of students appeared in the year 2006 from all the four institutes together?

a) 701                  b) 712                            c) 709                         d) 722                          e) None of these

80) What is the respective ratio of total number of students appeared in entrance exam from institute – A and C in 2006 and 2009 together to the total number of students qualified the entrance exam from institute – B and D in 2007 and 2008 together?

a) 811: 1962      b) 1962: 811                   c) 885: 1957           d) 1957: 885                 e) None of these

81) The sum of three consecutive odd numbers and three consecutive even numbers together is 231. Also, the smallest odd number is 11 less than the smallest even number. What is the sum of the largest odd number and the largest even number?

a) 82                   b) 83                        c) 74                d) Cannot be determined         e) None of these

82) Two – thirds of the first number is equal to the cube of the second number. If the second number is equal to twelve percent of 50, what is the sum of the first and the second numbers?

a) 330                b) 360                     c) 390               d) 372                         e) None of these

83) Rajini purchased a mobile phone and a refrigerator for Rs. 12,000 and Rs. 10,000 respectively. She sold the refrigerator at a loss of 12 percent and the mobile phone at a profit of 8 percent. What is her overall loss/profit?

a) Loss of Rs. 280                        b) Profit of Rs. 2,160                c) Loss of Rs. 240

d) Profit of Rs. 2,060                  e) None of these

84) The average age of seven boys sitting in a row facing North is 26 years. If the average age of the first three boys is 19 years and the average age of the last three boys is 32 years. What is the age of the boy who is sitting in middle of the row?

a) 28 years                        b) 29 years                c) 24 years

d) 31 years                        e) None of these

85) The perimeter of a square is double the perimeter of a rectangle. The area of the rectangle is 240 s cm. What is the area of the square?

a) 100 sq cm                                  b) 36 sq cm                       c) 81 sq cm

d) Cannot be determined           e) None of these

(Directions 86-90) What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following number series?

86) 9,  19, 40, 83,   ?,  345, 696

a) 162           b) 170              c) 175            d) 166            e) None of these

87) 980, 484, 236, 112, 50, ?, 3.5

a) 25            b) 17                  c) 21             d) 29              e) None of these

88) 8,    9,    20,    63,    256,    1285,    ?

a) 6430        b) 7450             c) 7716          d) 7746        e) None of these

89) 1015,    508,    255,    129,    66.5,     ?,     20.875

a) 34.50       b) 35         c) 35.30               d) 35.75          e) None of these

90) 12,    12,     18,     36,    90,    270,    ?

a) 945           b) 810       c) 1080                d) 1215             e) None of these

Directions (91-93) In the following questions two equations numbered I and II are given. You have to solve both the equations and Given answer:

a) x > y

b) x ≥ y

c) x < y

d) x ≤ y

e) x = y or the relationship cannot be established

91) I. 5x2 – 18x + 9 = 0

II. 20y2 – 13y + 2 = 0

92) I. x3 – 878 = 453

II. y2 – 82 = 39

93) I. x2 + 11x + 30 = 0

II.y2 + 7y + 12 = 0

Directions (94-95) In the following questions two equations numbered I and II are given. You have to solve both the equations and Given answer:

(a) If x< y

(b) if x ≤ y

(c) if x = y

(d) if x ≥ y

(e) if x > y

94) I. 4x2 – 8x +3 =0

II. 2y2 – 7y +6 =0

95) I. X2 + x -6 = 0

II. 2y2 +13y +21=0

Directions.(96-100) Each of the question below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question.

96) In how many days will five women complete a work?

I. Two women, five boys and three men together complete the work in six days

II. Eight women complete the same work in twelve days

a) If the data in Statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the questions.

b) If the data in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question

c) If the data in Statement I alone or in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question

d) If the data in both the statements I and II are not sufficient to answer the question

e) If the data in both the statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

97) What will be Shyam’s age after 6 years?

I. The ratio between Ram’s and Shyam’s present age is 4: 3 respectively.

II. Ram is seven years older than Shyam

a) If the data in Statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the questions.

b) If the data in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question

c) If the data in Statement I alone or in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question

d) If the data in both the statements I and II are not sufficient to answer the question

e) If the data in both the statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

98) What is the average speed of a car?

I. The average speed of the car is five times the average speed of a truck whereas the average speed of a bus is 45 km/hr.

II. The average speed of the truck is half the average speed of a train whereas the average speed of a jeep is 40 km/hr.

a) If the data in Statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the questions.

b) If the data in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question

c) If the data in Statement I alone or in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question

d) If the data in both the statements I and II are not sufficient to answer the question

e) If the data in both the statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

99) What is the simple interest accrued on a principal of Rs. 5,000/- in six years?

I. The rate of the simple interest for the first three years is 5 pcpa.

II. The rate of simple interest for the next three years is 8 pcpa.

a) If the data in Statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the questions.

b) If the data in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question

c) If the data in Statement I alone or in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question

d) If the data in both the statements I and II are not sufficient to answer the question

e) If the data in both the statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

100) What is the total cost of 4 kg of apple and 3 kg of mangoes together?

I. The cost of 2 kg of apple is Rs. 170/- and one kg of mango is Rs. 50/-

II. The total cost of 5 kg of apple and 4 kg of mangoes is Rs. 410/-

a) If the data in Statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the questions.

b) If the data in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question

c) If the data in Statement I alone or in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question

d) If the data in both the statements I and II are not sufficient to answer the question

e) If the data in both the statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

ENGLISH

(Directions.101-104) Which of the phrases (a), (b), (c) & (d) given below should replace the phrase given in bold in the following sentence to make it meaningful and grammatically correct. If the sentence is correct as it is and ‘No correction is required’. Mark (e) as the answer.

101) We admire they are taking this step despite the numerous risks involved.

a) Them to take                             b) Them for taking                c) That they have taken over

d) How their taking of                 e) No correction required

102) We have accepted over two billion dollars from them yet it is been used to build hospitals in the area.

a) that is yet to use                   b) Although it has been used          c) Not yet being used

d) Which will be used              e) No correction required

103) People have response in favour the government’s efforts to resolve the budget crisis

a) Favourably responded                 b) Response in favour of           c) Responded favourably to

d) Been responding favourably      e) No correction required

104) The management has been left with no option else to change the branch timings to avoid losing business

a) but to change                                b) Except the change of                     c) Unless it changes with

d) Other than the changing           e) No correction required

Directions.(105-116) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the question

The great fear in Asia a short while ago was that the region would suffer through the wealth destruction already taking place in U.S. as a result of the financial crsis. Stock market tumbled as export plunged and economics growth deteriorated. Lofty property prices in China and elsewhere looked set to bust as credit tightened and buyers evaporated. But with surprising speed, fear in Asia swung back to greed as the region shows signs of recovery and property and stock prices are soaring in many parts of Asia. Why should this sharp Asian turnaround be greeted with skepticism. Higher asset prices mean household feel wealthier and better able to spend, which could further fuel the region’s nascent rebound. But just as easily, Asia could soon find itself saddled with overheated markets similar to the U.S. housing market. In short the world has not changed, it has just moved places.

The incipient bubble is being created by government policy. In response to the global credit crunch of 2008, policy makers in Asia slashed interest rates and flooded financial sectors with cash in frantic attempts to keep loans flowing and economies growing. These steps were logical for central bankers striving to reverse a deepening economic crisis. But there’s evidence that there is too much easy money around. It’s winding up in stocks and real estate, pushing prices up too far and too fast for the underlying economic fundamentals. Much of the concerns is focused on China, where government stimulus efforts have been large and effective. Money in China has been especially easy to find. Aggregate new bank lending surged 201% in the first half of 2009 from the same period a year earlier, to nearly $ 1.1 trillion. Exuberance over a quick recovery which was given a boost by China’s surprisingly strong 7.9% % GDP growth in the second quarter has buoyed investor sentiment not just for stocks but also for real estate.

Former U.S. Federal Reserve Chairman Alan Greenspan argued that bubbles could only be recognised in hindsight. But investors who have been well schooled in the dangers of bubbles over the past decade are increasingly wary that prices have risen too far, and that the slightest bit of negative economic news could knock markets for a loop. These fears are compounded by the possibility that Asia’s central bankers will begin taking steps to shut off the money. Rumours that Beijing was on the verge of tightening credit led to Shanghai stocks plunging 5%. Yet many economists believe that, there is close to a zero possibility that the Chinese government will do anything this year that constitutes tightening. “And without a major shift in thinking, the easy-money conditions will stay in place. In a global economy that has produced more dramatic ups and downs than anyone thought possible over the past two years, Asia may be heading for another disheartening plunge.

105) To which of the following has the author attributed the 2008 Asian financial crisis?

I. Reluctance of Asian governments to taper off the economic stimulus.

II. Greed of Asian investors causing them to trade stocks of American companies at high prices.

III. Inflated real estate prices in Asian countries.

a) None                               b) Only I                         c) Only III

d) Only I & II                    e) Only II

106) Why does the author doubt the current resurgence of Asian economics?

a) Their economies are too heavily reliant on the American economy which is yet to recover

b) Central banks have slashed interest rates too abruptly which is likely to cause stock markets to crash

c) With their prevailing economic conditions they are at risk for a financial crisis

d) Their GDP has not grown significantly during the last financial year.

e) None of these

107) What is the author’s main objective in writing the passage?

a) Illustrating that Asian economies are financially more sound than those of developed countries

b) Disputing financial theories about how recessions can be predicted and avoided

c) Warning Asian countries about the dangers of favouring fast growth and profits over sound economic principles

d) Extolling China’s incredible growth and urging other countries to emulate it

e) Advising governments about the changes in policy to strengthen economic fundamentals.

108) What does the author want to convey through the phrase “The world has not changed it has just moved places”?

a) At present countries are more dependent on Asian economies than on the US economy

b) Economies have become interlinked on account of globalisation

c) Asian governments are implementing the same economic reforms as developed countries

d) All economies are susceptible to recession because of the state of the US economy

e) None of these

109) Which of the following can be said the Chinese government’s efforts to revive the economy?

a) These were largely unsuccessful as only the housing market improved

b) The government’s only concern was to boost investor confidence in stocks

c) These efforts were ineffectual as the economy recovered owing to the US market stabilizing

d) These were appropriate and accomplished the goal of economic revival

e) They blindly imitated the economics reforms adopted by the US

110) According to the passage, which of the following factor(s) has/ have had a negative impact on the Asian stock markets?

I. Abrupt drop in exports by Asian countries

II. Extravagant disbursement of housing loans in 2009.

III. Raising of interest rates by the Central Bank

a) None                           b) Only I & II                       c) Only I

d) Only I & III                e) All I, II & III

111) Why has investor confidence in the Chinese stock market been restored?

Existing property prices which are stable and affordable

The government has decided to tighten credit.

III. Healthy growth of the economy indicated by GDP figures.

a) Only III                       b) Only I & II         c) All I, II & III

d) Only II                        e) None of these


(Directions.112-114) Choose the word or group of words which is Most Similar in meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

112) Evaporated     

a) Dehydrated          b) Melted         c) Vaporised         d) Vanished            e) Dodged

113) Fuel

a) Petrol                  b) Stimulate       c) Sustain              d) Heat                   e) Charge

114) Flooded

a) Surged                b) Saturated       c) Overflowed        d) Deluge              e) Overcome

(Directions. 115-116) Choose the group of words which is Most opposite in meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

115) Sharp

a) Blunt               b) Incomplete                c) Naive                 d) Indistinct           e) Gradual

116) Buoyed

a) Heavy           b) Stifled                         c) Numbered            d) Dull            e) Abated

(Directions.117-123) Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical mistake/ error in it. The error if any will be in one part of the sentence. Mark the letter of that part with error as your answer. If there is ‘No error’, mark e)

117) Their failure to inspect (a) / our factories is a (b) / clear indications that our (c) / licence will not be renewed (d) / No error (e)

118) The Board’s decision has provided (a) / employees with the opportunity (b) / to acquire upto 100(c) / shares by the company (d) / No error (e)

119) He had telephoned yesterday to (a) / ask how much of the youth (b) / Who attend our classes would be (c) / interested in working for a textile company (d) / No error (e)

120) If the manufacturing sector continues (a) / to grow at the same rate for (b) / the next few months, I think it (c) / has a high growth rate this year (d) / No error (e)

121) The success of the (a) / government sponsor job guarantee programme(b) / has resulted in a (c) / drastic drop in poverty (d) / No error (e)

122) Who had extensively discussions (a) / with the participants and (b) / obtained their feedback (c) / regarding our new services (d) / No error (e)

123) The government is working (a) / out a new system to compensate  (b) / those companies to sell (c) / products below the market price  (d) / No error (e)

Directions.(124-128) In each question below a sentence with four words printed in bold type is given.              These are marked as a), b), c) and d). One of these four words printed in bold may be either wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out the word which is wrongly spelt or inappropriate if any. The letter of that word is your answer. If all the words printed in bold are correctly spelt and also appropriate in the context of the sentence, mark e) i.e., All correct as your answer.

124) Though these programmes have proved a) / to be extremely b) / effective c) / they do have certain drawbacks d) / all correct e)

125) In order to confront a) / the threat of global warning b) /it is imperative c) / that we work all together d) / all correct e)

126) Any failure a) / to complicit b) / will there fundamental regulation   c) / will result in a fine d) / All correct e)

127) We plan to complete the exhaustive a) / performance b) / review c) / undertook by us d) / all correct e)

128) Home loan borrowers will be a) / definitely b) / affected   c) / since banks have raised their lending d) / rates of interest. All correct e)

Directions.(129-132) Rearrange the following six sentences I, II, III, IV, V and VI in the proper sequence to form meaningful paragraph; then answer given below them.

I. As a result the nonstop tensions and anxieties at work often result in health related problems.

II. The truth is we cannot change the world of work.

III. We spend at least half our waking hours at work.

IV. We have therefore to take change and transform the way in which we respond to our work environment

V. So how can we control these problems and perform at work?

VI. However we can change the way we feel and deal with various situations.

129) Which of the following should be the LAST (SIXTH) sentence after rearrangement?

a) II                   b) III                   c) IV                 d) V                  e) VI

130) Which of the following should be the FIFTH sentence after rearrangement?

a) II                  b) III                  c) IV                  d) V                  e) VI

131) Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement?

a) I                  b) II                      c) III                 d) IV                  e) V

132) Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement?

a) I                  b) II                  c) III                       d) IV                        e) V

Directions.(133-140) In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These are printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.

Technology ____133____ Lives. But ____134____ if people want it to. This qualification is important, and ___135____ to understanding progress. Akio Morita, the founder of Sony, used to make inventions not by making minute, detailed studies of ____136____ People lived their lives. It is observable that when he relinquished direct involvement in product development at the company in the 1980s, Sony seemed to lose its ____137____ of developing a truly radical invention like the Walkman that the word takes to en masse.

However much it seems that machines are in ____138____ they are not, yet the belief that the technology alone holds the key to ____139____ the way people work, buy and do business is strong. The rise of dotcoms in the late 1990s was ____140____ by a belief that technology was changing the rules of marketing and employee relationships.

133) a) Ruins b) Changes c) Makes d) Explains e) Shakes
134) a) Not b) Occasionally c) Seldom d) Only e) Never
135) a) Key b) Primarily c) Encouraging d) Supported e) Disastrous
136) a) Why b) Where c) When d) Whether e) How
137) a) Share b) Profit c) Knack d) Business e) Plant
138) a) Progress b) Control c) Action d) Operation e) Transaction
139) a) Encroaching b) Accomplishing c) Determination d) Highlighting e) Informing
140) a) Govern b) Successful c) Underlying d) Disputed e) Accompanied

Directions.(141-145) Rearrange the following six sentences I, II, III, IV, V and VI in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them.

I. Two of the best-performing major economies in 2010 were China and Brazil, with growth estimated at 7.5% and 10.5% respectively

II. Despite that limp growth, major US stock market indexes are up between 11% and 20 % for the year

III. Even knowing where economies are headed sometimes is of no help to an investor.

IV. It is hard to anticipate the direction of financial markets

V. But as of December, stock markets of both nations were in the red for the year.

VI. By contrast, the US economy is likely to have expanded at only about 2.6% for the year

141) Which of the following would be the SECOND sentence?
a) I b) III c) IV d) V e) VI
142) Which of the following would be the FOURTH sentence?
a) I b) II c) III d) V e) VI
143) Which of the following would be the FIFTH sentence?
a) I b) II c) III d) IV e) VI
144) Which of the following would be the FIRST sentence?
a) II b) III c) IV d) V e) I
145) Which of the following would be the SIXTH (LAST) sentence?
a) I b) II c) III d) IV e) VI


(Directions.146-150) Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical mistake/ error in it or a wrong word has been used. The error if any, will be in one part of the sentence which has been printed in bold and has been numbered a), b), c) or d) . The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is e) i.e., ‘No error’. (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any.)

146) The convergence of (a) / Indian accounting standards with international Financial Report standards (IFRS) beginning (b) / in April is expecting to  (c) / see power companies struggling with (d) /significant first time adopting impact. No error (e)

147) Researchers at (a) / the  Indian Institute of science (IIS(c), Bangalore, are mapping (b) / India’s solar hot spots-where round the year (c) / Sunlight makes viable of (d) / companies to set up solar power plants.  No error (e)

148) Though their qualifications span a diverse (a) / range, there is an equal (b) / number of graduates and those who have just completed school, each set (c) / making up (d) / close to 30% of these households.. No error (e)

149) As if (a) / the most dangerous moment for any dictatorship is when (b) / it starts to (c) / reform , North Korea looks ready to turn that truism on its head (d) / No error (e)

150) It so happens (a) / that this happy compy ritual is their way of life (b) / and one into which (c) / they don’t particularly welcome (d) / voyeuristic intrusions. / No error (e)

151) Technology assessment is all assessing how much technology has been incorporated into an organisation
a) Analysing the overall growth of the organisation b) Trying to foresee the effects of new products and processes on a firm’s operatum and on society 111 general c) Assessing how much technology one wants to put into a company in the future d) Assessing the cost of new technology to determine whether a firm can afford to use it e) None of these
152) Which of the following represents an output from the marketing environment?
a) Money borrowed by Liverpool F, C, to help finance its operations b) Nike’s television advertising campaign featuring a leading sports personality c) Information on shoppers’ attiudes purchased by Debenharns Department Stores d) Steel purchased by Volvo to be used in producing cars e) None of these
153) There are two major categories of laws that directly affect marketing practices: precompetitive legislation and _______
a) Consumer protection legislation b) Unfair trade practices laws c) Trading standards legislation d) Consumer price dis crimination legislation e) None of these
154) If the National Association of Hoisery Manufactures sets guidelines for its member firms to follow regarding the use of unethical practices, it is engaging in
a) Legislation b) Lobbying c) Self – regulation d) Environmental scanning e) None of these
155) The consumer movement is _____
a) Against foreign imports that are much cheaper than products produced in the home market b) A movement that is trying to improve consumer satisfaction c) A social movement that is able to challenge big business practices d) A diverse group of individuals, groups and organisations attempting to protect the rights of consumers e) None of these
156) Lynx has demonstrated against the sale of coats made of animal furs. This group’s efforts to change shoppers attitudes represents for fur retailers _______
a) An opportunity b) Self – regulation c) A social force d) An economic force e) None of these
157) The period in the business cycle in which there is extremely high unemployment, low wages, minimum total disposable income, and a lack of confidence in the economy by consumers is _____
a) Recovery b) Prosperity c) Depression d) Recession e) None of these
158) Market Expansion means _______
a) Hiring more staff b) Firing more staff c) Buying more products d) Buying more companies e) None of these
159) Delivery channel means ______
a) Maternity wards b) Handing over the products to the buyers c) Places where products are made available to the buyers d) All of these e) None of these
160) One of the following is a target group for the marketing of Internet Banking
a) All the customers b) All the educated customers c) All the computer educated customers d) Only creditors e) All of these
161) One of the following is a target group for the marketing of educational loan
a) All the customers b) Students c) Only poor students d) Students having promising educational track record e) All of these
162) Service after sale is not the function of _____
a) Marketing staff b) Seller c) Director of the company d) Employees of the company e) All of the above are wrong
163) If done through ______ the rural marketing would be more effective
a) Fairs b) Village fairs c) Door to door campaign d) All of these e) None of these
164) Indian-origin Antara Haldar became the first non-European law lecturer at______
a) University of York b) University of Glasgow c) Cambridge University d) University of Sheffield e) None of these
165) Parliament of which country approved a new anti-terror bill aimed anti-terror bill aimed at preventing jihadists from travelling? This will prevent jihadists from travelling to Iraq, Syria or elsewhere by confiscating their passports.
a) France b) Japan c) Egypt d) Netherland e) None of these
166) Tata Group company Coma signed a deal with___
a) Flipkart b) Snapdeal c) Ebay d) Amazon e) None of these
167) Software Gaint Microsoft Corp acquired a video game company Majang for 2.5 billion US dollors. Majang belongs to which country?
a) Syria b) Sweden c) China d) South Korea e) None of these
168) Actor and Environmental activist______ was designated as the United Nations Messenger of Peace by UN Chief Ban Ki-moon.
a) Bhumibol adulyade b) Voreqe Bainimarama c) Angelina Jolie d) Leonardo DiCaprio e) None of these
169) “And then One Day: A Memoir” is the autobiography of ________
a) Shabana Azmi b) Naseeruddin Shah c) Anupam Kher d) Pankaj Kapoor e) Javed Akhtar
170)  _______ will be hosting International Film Festivel of India every year.
a) Kerala b) Maharastra c) Karnataka d) Goa e) New Delhi
171) Le Yucheng was appointed as_____ ‘s new Ambassador to India
a) Japan b) North Korea c) China d) Singapore e) Malaysia
172) First Indian State to ratify the National Judicial Appointments Commission (NJAC) Bill 2014 is ______
a) Rajasthan b) Maharashtra c) Assam d) Madhya Pradesh e) Telangana
173) Vintage Daskota aircraft was gifted to ____ by Indian Air force.Dakota aircraft was with the Indian Airforce its museum.
a) Bhutan Air Force b) Myanmar Air Force c) Japan Air Force d) Bangaladesh Air Force e) None of these
174) What is the theme of Asian Games 2014?
a) Meet Aisa’s Future b) Lightening Asia c) Asia Shining d) Shining Future of Asia e) None of these
175) Noted Mandolin player Uppalapu Srinivas passed away in Chennai.He was just____years old.
a) 40 b) 45 c) 55 d) 35 e) 44
176) CM of Assam Tarun Gagoi launched a fund, which is focused on first generation entrrpreneurs. What is the name of this fund?
a) Star Funds b) Future Funds c) Angel Funds d) Shine Funds e) Help Funds
177) Who Cinched first gold medal in Asian games 2014 for India?
a) Shweta Chaudhry b) Jitu Rai c) Parupalli Kashyap d) Vikas Gowda e) Babita Kumari
178) Which of the following bears the most market risk?
a) corporate bond b) savings account deposit c) certificate of deposit (CD) d) checking account deposit e) None of these
179) Which of the following is NOT true?
a) liquidity and risk are positively related b) risk and yield are positively related c) liquidity and yield are inversely related d) all of the above are true e) None of these
180) Which asset carries the greatest default risk?
a) corporate bond b) corporate stock c) long-term Treasury bond d) money market mutual fund shares e) None of these
181) According to the “risk structure of interest rates,” play a role in explaining interest rates:
a) default risk b) liquidity c) income tax considerations d) all of the above e) None of these
182) In drawing a yield curve, which of the following is not held constant?
a) default risk b) tax treatment c) length of time to maturity d) marketability e) None of these
183) A yield curve will slope downward when
a) short-term interest rates are above long-term rates b) long-term interest rates are above short-term rates c) short-term interest rates equal long-term rates d) inflation rates are high e) None of these
184) Which of the following nation is considered the originator of the concept of Micro Finance?
a) India b) Bangladesh c) South Africa d) USA e) None
185) What is the full form of “ULIP”, the term which was in the news recently?
a) Universal Life & Investment Plan b) Unit Loan & Insurance Plan c) Universal Loan & Investment Plan d) Uniformly Loaded Investment Plan e) Unit Linked Insurance Plan
186) The main function of I.M.F. is to
a) Finance Investment loans to developing countries b) Act as a private sector lending arm of the World Bank c) Help to solve balance of payment problems of member countries d) Arrange international deposits from banks e) None
187) RBI has asked banks to make a plan to provide banking services to all villages having a population upto 2000. This directive issued bythe RBI will fall in which of the following categories?
a) Plan for Financial Inclusion b) Efforts to meet the targets of Priority Sector Lending c) Extension of Relief Packages to the Farmers d) Plan for opening more rural branches e) None
188) Which of the following is not a part of the scheduled banking structure in ‘India’?
a) Money Landers b) Public Sector Banks c) Private Sector Banks d) Regional Rural Banks e) State Co-operative Banks
189) The rate of interest on Savings Bank Account is stipulated by
a) The concerned bank b) RBI c) Indian Banks Association d) Government of India e) Banking codes and Standards Board of India
190) All of the following are examples of real security and privacy risks except ____
a) Hackers b) Spam c) Viruses d) Identify theft e) None of these
191) A digital computer did not score over an analog computer in terms of
a) Speed b) Accuracy c) Reliability d) Cost e) None of these
192) IBM 7000 digital computer
a) Belongs to second generation b) Uses VLSI c) Employs semi conductor memory d) Has modular constructions e) None of these
193) The first microprocessor built by the Intel Corporation was called
a) 8008 b) 8080 c) 4004 d) 8800 e) None of these
194) One computer that is not considered a portable computer is
a) Minicomputer b) A laptop computer c) Micro computer d) All of these e) None of these
195) Who invented the microprocessor?
a) Marcian E Huff b) Herman H Goldstein c) Joseph Jacquard d) All of the above d) None of these
196) Which of the following required large computer memory
a) Imaging b) Graphics c) Voice d) All of the above e) None of these
197) The subject of cybernetics deals with the science of
a) Genetics b) Control and communications c) Molecular biology d) Biochemistry e) None of these
198) The first electronic general purpose digital computer built by Motley and Accrete called ENIAC did not work on the stored program concept. How many numbers could it store in its internal memory?
a) 100 b) 20 c) 40 d) 80 e) None of these
199) The first electronic computer in the world was
a) UNIVAC b) EDVAC c) ENIAC d) All of above e) None of these
200) Microprocessors can be used to make
a) Computer b) Digital systems c) Calculators d) All of the above e) None of these

Answer Key:

1.(e) 2.(a) 3.(d) 4.(e) 5.(b) 6.(c) 7.(d) 8.(a)
9.(a) 10.(b) 11.(a) 12.(d) 13.(e) 14.(a) 15.(c) 16.(d)
17.(e) 18.(a) 19.(a) 20.(a) 21.(d) 22.(c) 23.(a) 24.(c)
25.(b) 26.(c) 27.(c) 28.(c) 29.(e) 30.(a) 31.(b) 32.(d)
33.(b) 34.(b) 35.(c) 36.(a) 37.(c) 38.(e) 39.(a) 40.(d)
41.(b) 42.(b) 43.(d) 44.(e) 45.(d) 46.(d) 47.(d) 48.(b)
49.(a) 50.(a) 51.(b) 52.(c) 53.(d) 54.(a) 55.(d) 56.(c)
57.(b) 58.(b) 59.(b) 60.(a) 61.(b) 62.(a) 63.(b) 64.(c)
65.(e) 66.(b) 67.(a) 68.(c) 69.(e) 70.(e) 71.(a) 72.(e)
73.(e) 74.(c) 75.(b) 76.(c) 77.(d) 78.(e) 79.(a) 80.(b)
81.(e) 82.(a) 83.(c) 84.(b) 85.(d) 86.(b) 87.(e) 88.(c)
89.(d) 90.(a) 91.(a) 92.(b) 93.(e) 94.(a) 95.(c) 96.(b)
97.(e) 98.(d) 99.(e) 100.(a) 101.(b) 102.(d) 103.(c) 104.(a)
105.(a) 106.(c) 107.(b) 108.(d) 109.(d) 110.(c) 111.(a) 112.(d)
113.(b) 114.(a) 115.(e) 116.(c) 117.(c) 118.(d) 119.(b) 120.(d)
121.(b) 122.(a) 123.(c) 124.(e) 125.(d) 126.(b) 127.(d) 128.(e)
129.(c) 130.(e) 131.(a) 132.(c) 133.(b) 134.(d) 135.(a) 136.(e)
137.(c) 138.(a) 139.(c) 140.(e) 141.(b) 142.(d) 143.(e) 144.(c)
145.(b) 146.(a) 147.(d) 148.(d) 149.(d) 150.(c) 151.(b) 152.(b)
153.(a) 154.(c) 155.(d) 156.(c) 157.(c) 158.(e) 159.(c) 160.(c)
161.(b) 162.(a) 163.(b) 164.(c) 165.(a) 166.(b) 167.(b) 168.(d)
169.(b) 170.(d) 171.(c) 172.(a) 173.(d) 174.(a) 175.(b) 176.(c)
177.(b) 178.(a) 179.(a) 180.(b) 181.(d) 182.(c) 183.(a) 184.(b)
185.(e) 186.(c) 187.(a) 188.(a) 189.(b) 190.(b) 191.(b) 192.(c)
193.(a) 194.(a) 195.(a) 196.(d) 197.(b) 198.(b) 199.(c) 200.(d)
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