IBPS SO – PREVIOUS YEAR PAPERS

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IBPS Specialist Officer 2012

TEST I REASONING

1. In a certain code ‘TEAMWORK’ is written as ‘NBFUJQNV’ and ‘SOME’ is written as ‘PTDL’. How is ‘PERSON’ written in that code?

(a) QDOOPT   (b) QDOMNR  (c) SFQMNR   (d) SFQOPT    (e) None of these

2. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘SUBSTANCE’ each of which has as many letters between them in the word (in both forward and backward directions) as in the English alphabet?

(a) None       (b) One         (c) Two         (d) Three       (e) More than three

3. How many meaningful English words, not ending with ‘D’ can be made with the third, the fifth, the seventh and the ninth letters of the word ‘STEADFAST’ using each letter only once in each word? (All letters are counted from left to right)

(a) None       (b) One         (c) Two         (d) Three       (e) More than three

4. In a certain code ‘BASKET’ is written as ‘5$3%#1’ and ‘TRIED’ is written as ‘14*#2’. How is ‘SKIRT’ written in that code?

(a) 3%*41     (b) 3*%41     (c) 3%#41     (d) 3#4%1    (e) None of these

5. The positions of the first and the fifth digits of the number 81943275 are interchanged. Similarly the positions of the second and the sixth digits are interchanged and so on till the fourth and the eighth digits. Which of the following will be the third digit from the right end after the rearrangement?

(a) 1             (b) 9             (c) 2             (d) 4             (e) None of these

 

Directions (Q.Nos. 6-10): Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions given below.

M 3 # R A T 1 E J $ K @ F U 5 4 V I 6 © D 8 * H N 7 δ 2 W

  1. Four of the following are alike in a certain way based on their positions in the above arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?

(a) T E R       (b) U 4 @      (c) 6 D V       (d) J 1 K        (e) N δ *

  1. How many such numbers are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately preceded by a letter but not immediately followed by a letter?

(a) None       (b) One         (c) Two         (d) Three       (e) More than three

  1. What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following series based on the above arrangement?

RT1     $@F    4I6     ?

(a) 8 * H       (b) 8 H N       (c) 8 H 7       (d) D * H       (e) None of these

  1. How many such symbols are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately preceded by a number and immediately followed by a letter?

(a) None       (b) One         (c) Two         (d) Three       (e) More than three

  1. Which of the following is the seventh to the left of the twentieth from the left end of the above arrangement?

(a) V            (b) @            (c) δ             (d) ©            (e) None of these

 

Directions (Q.Nos. 11-15): Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and

Give answer

(a) If the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question

(b) If the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question

(c) If the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question

(d) If the data given in both the statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question, and

(e) If the data in both the statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question

  1. Among M, P, T, R and W each being of a difference age, who is the youngest?
  2. T is younger than only P and W
  3. M is younger than T and older than R
  4. How is ‘gone’ written in a code language?
  5. ‘you will be gone’ is written as ‘ka pa ni sa’ in that code language
  6. ‘he will be there’ is written as ‘ja da ka ni’ in that code language
  7. On which day of the week (starting from Monday and ending on Sunday of the same week) did Sushant visit Chennai?
  8. Sushant visited Chennai two days after his brother visited Chennai
  9. Sushant did not visit Chennai either on Wednesday or on Friday
  10. Towards which direction is P with respect to the starting point?
  11. P walked 20m, took a right turn and walked 30m, again took right turn and walked 20m towards West
  12. P walked 30m, took a left turn and walked 20m, again took left turn and walked 30m towards East
  13. How is K related to Z?
  14. Z and P are the only sisters of D
  15. D’s mother is wife of K’s father

 

Directions (Q.Nos. 16-20): In the following questions, the symbols @, $, #, © and % are used with the following meaning as illustrated below.

‘P $ Q’ means ‘P is not smaller than Q’

‘P © Q’ means ‘P is neither greater than nor equal to Q’

‘P # Q’ means ‘P is neither smaller than nor equal to Q’

‘P % Q’ means ‘P is not greater than Q’

‘P @ Q’ means ‘P is neither greater than nor smaller than Q’

Now in each of the following questions assuming the given statements to be true, find which of the four conclusions I, II, II and IV given below them is/are definitely true and give your answer accordingly.

  1. Statements: R # J, J $ D, D @ K, K % T

Conclusions: I. T # D        II. T @ D       III. R # K      IV. J $ T

(a) Either I or II is true        (b) Only III is true     (c) III and IV are true

(d) Either I or II and III are true     (e) None of the above

  1. Statements: T % R, R $ M, M @ D, D © H

Conclusions: I. D % R        II. H # R       III. T © M      IV. T % D

(a) Only I is true       (b) I and IV are true           (c) I and II are true

(d) II and IV are true          (e) None of the above

  1. Statements: M @ B, B # N, N $ R, R © K

Conclusions: I. K # B        II. R © B       III. M $ R       IV. N © M

(a) I and III are true           (b) I and II are true            (c) II and IV are true

(d) II, III and IV are true     (e) None of these

  1. Statements: F # H, H @ M, M © E, E $ J

Conclusions: I. J © M        II. E # H        III. M © F      IV. F # E

(a) I and II are true            (b) II and III are true          (c) I, II and III are true

(d) II, II and IV are true      (e) None of these

  1. Statements: D % A, A @ B, B © K, K % M

Conclusions: I. B $ D         II. K # A       III. M # B      IV. A © M

(a) I, II and IV are true       (b) I, II and II are true        (c) II, III and IV are true

(d) I, III and IV are true      (e) All I, II, III and IV are true

Directions (Q.Nos. 21-25): Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions. A word and number arrangement machine when given an input line of words and numbers rearranges them following a particular rule in each step. The following is an illustration of input and rearrangement. (All the numbers give in the arrangement are two digit numbers).

Input            :        gone   over    35      69      test     72      park    27

Step I           :        27      gone   over    35      69      test     72      park

Step II          :        27      test     gone   over    35      69      72      park

Step III         :        27      test     35      gone   over    69      72      park

Step IV         :        27      test     35      park    gone   over    69      72

Step V          :        27      test     35      park    69      gone   over    72

Step VI         :        27      test     35      park    69      over    gone   72

Step VII        :        27      test     35      park    69      over    72      gone

And Step VII is the last step of the rearrangement of the above input as the desired arrangement is obtained.

As per the rules followed in the above steps, find out in each of the following questions the appropriate step for the given input.

  1. Input: 86 open shut door 31 49 always 45, How many steps will be required to complete the rearrangement?

(a) Five         (b) Six          (c) Seven      (d) Four        (e) None of these

  1. Step III of an input: 25 yes 37 enemy joy defeat 52 46, Which of the following is definitely the input?

(a) enemy 25 joy defeat yes 52 37 46      (b) 37 enemy 25 joy yes 52 37 46

(c) enemy joy defeat 25 52 yes 46 37       (d) Cannot be determined              (e) None of the above

  1. Step II of an input: 18 win 71 34 now if victory 61

How many more steps will be required to complete the rearrangement?

(a) Three       (b) Four        (c) Five         (d) Six          (e) More than six

  1. Input: where 47 59 12 are they going 39, Which of the following steps will be the last but one?

(a) VII          (b) IV           (c) V             (d) VIII         (e) None of these

  1. Step II of an input: 33 store 52 of 75 81 full goods 52, Which of the following will be step VI?

(a) 33 store 52 of 75 81 full goods           (b) 33 store 52 of 75 full 81 goods

(c) 33 store 52 of 75 goods 81 full            (d) There will be no such step        (e) None of the above

 

Directions (Q.Nos. 26-30): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.

Following are the conditions for selecting Manager-HR in an Organization

The candidate must ___________

(i) be at least 30 yr and not more than 35 yr as on 1.3.2012

(ii) have secured at least 60% marks in Graduation in any discipline

(iii) have secured at least 65% marks in the Post Graduate Degree / Diploma in Personnel Management / HR

(iv) have post qualification work experience of at least five years in the Personnel / HR department of an organization

(v) have secured at least 50% marks in the selection process

In the case of a candidate who satisfies all the above conditions except

(1) at (ii) above, but has secured at least 55% marks in Graduation in any discipline and at least 70% marks in Post Graduate Degree / Diploma in Personnel Management / HR, the case is to be referred to GM – HR

(2) at (iv) above, but has post qualification work experience of at least four years out of which at least two years as Deputy Manager – HR, the case is to be referred to President – HR

In each question below are given details of one candidate. You have to take one of the following courses of actions based on the information provided and the conditions and sub-conditions given above and mark the number of that course of action as your answer. You are not to assume anything other than the information provided in each question. All these cases are given to you as on 1.3.2012.

Mark answer

(a) If the candidate is not to be selected    (b) If the data provided are not adequate to take a decision

(c) If the case is to be referred to President – HR           (d) If the case is to be referred to GM – HR

(e) If the candidate is to be selected

  1. Rita Bhatt was born on 25th July, 1978. She has secured 62% marks in Graduation and 65% marks in Post Graduate Diploma in Management. She has been working for the past six years in the Personnel Department of an Organization after completing her Post Graduation. She has secured 55% marks in the selection process
  2. Ashok Pradhan was born on 8th August, 1980. He has been working in the Personnel department of an organization for the past four years after completing his Post Graduate Degree in Personnel Management with 67%. Out of his entire experience, he has been working for the past two years as Deputy Manager – HR. He has secured 62% marks in Graduation and 58% marks in the selection process
  3. Alok Verma was born on 4th March, 1976. He has been working in the Personnel Department of an organization for the past six years after completing his Post Graduate Diploma in Personnel Management with 66% marks. He has secured 57% marks in the selection process and 63% marks in Graduation
  4. Swapan Ghosh has been working in the Personnel Department of an organization for the past five years after completing his Post Graduate Degree in HR with 72% marks. He has secured 56% marks in Graduation. He was born on 12th May, 1977. He has secured 58% marks in the selection process
  5. Seema Behl has been working in the Personnel Department of an organization for the past seven years after completing her Post Graduate Diploma in Personnel Management with 70% marks. She was born on 5th July, 1979. She has secured 65% marks in Graduation and 50% marks in the selection process

Directions (Q. Nos. 31-35): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.

A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are eight friends travelling in three different cars, viz. X, Y and Z with at least two in one car to three different places, viz Delhi, Chandigarh and Agra. There is at least one female member in each car. D is travelling with G to Delhi but not in car Y. A is travelling with only H in car Z but not to Chandigarh. C is not travelling with either D or E. F and D are studying in the same only girls’ college. H, B and G are studying in the same only boys’ college.

  1. Which of the following represents the group of females among them?

(a) F, C, A     (b) F, G, A     (c) D, C, A     (d) Data inadequate  (e) None of these

  1. Which of the following combinations is correct?

(a) Delhi – X – C       (b) Chandigarh – X – F        (c) Agra – Z – E       (d) Delhi – Y – E

(e) None of these

  1. In which car are four of them travelling?

(a) X or Z      (b) Y             (c) X or Y      (d) Z   (e) None of these

  1. In which of the following cars is C travelling?

(a) X            (b) Y             (c) Z             (d) Either X or Y       (e) Data inadequate

  1. Passengers in which car travelling to Chandigarh?

(a) Y             (b) X            (c) Either X or Y       (d) Data inadequate  (e) None of these

 

Directions (Q.Nos. 36-40): In each of the questions below is given a statement, followed by a question. Read the statement carefully and answer the question that follows.

  1. Statement: The State government granted special status to the seminar on the importance of protecting the environment around us organized by the local academic body to create awareness among the citizens.

Which of the following may be a probable reason for the State Government’s decision?

(a) The Central Government has accorded highest priority to issues related to protection of environment, over all other issues

(b) In the past the State Government had granted special status to such seminars

(c) The State Government has failed to implement measures for protecting the environment

(d) The local academic body made a fervent appeal for the special status

(e) None of these

  1. Statement: Most car manufacturers have marginally reduced the price of their products despite higher input costs and increased Govt. duties and have promised to keep the prices at least the next couple of months.

Which of the following can be a best possible reason for the above step by car manufacturers?

(a) Car manufacturers have not been able to meet their sales target for the current year so far

(b) The Government is planning to review taxes on the raw materials for manufacturing cars

(c) The car sales market is going through a jubilant phase as the volume of sales has picked up considerably in the recent past and profit per car has also gone up

(d) Car buyers are still hesitant to make their purchases and may postpone for another few months

(e) Oil marketing companies are contemplating reviewing the petrol and diesel prices in order to decide future market prices

  1. Statement: The prices of vegetables and other food articles have decreased in the recent months raising hope among policy planners that the RBI’s (Reserve Bank of India) tight grip on supply of liquid money in the market for controlling inflation may be eased.

Which of the following may be a possible action of the above situation?

(a) The Reserve Bank of India may not reduce its key interest rates in near future

(b) The Government may step in and make certain concessions to the common people on various issues

(c) The Reserve bank of India may consider lowering certain rates to bring in more liquidity in the market

(d) The RBI may wait for at least another year before taking any step

(e) The RBI may collect more data from the market and wait for another four months to ensure they take the correct step

  1. Statement: A severe cyclonic storm hit the Eastern coastline last month resulting in huge loss of life and property on the entire East coast and the Government had to disburse a considerable amount for relief activities through the district administration machineries.

Which of the following may possibly be a follow up measure to be taken up by the Government?

(a) The Government may set up a task force to review the post relief scenario in all districts and also to confirm proper end user receipt of the relief supplies

(b) The Government may set up a committee for proper disbursement of relief supplies in future

(c) The Government may empower the District Magistrates to make all future disbursements of relief

(d) The Government may send relief supplies to the affected people in future only after proper assessment of the damage caused by such calamities

(e) The Government may not need to activate any follow up measure

  1. Statement: It has been reported in a recent study that intake of moderate quantity of milk chocolate reduces the risk of suffering from central nervous system related illnesses.

Which of the following would weaken the findings of the study reported in the above statement?

(a) People generally prefer to eat chocolate when they are young

(b) Majority of those not diagnosed with diseases related to central nervous system have stayed away from eating chocolates in their lives

(c) Chocolates contain certain elements which strengthen the functions of the central nervous system

(d) Majority of those suffering from central nervous system related diseases are middle aged

(e) Many of those who suffer from diabetes also suffer from other major ailments

 

Directions (Q.Nos. 41-50): In each of the questions given below which one of the five answer figures on the right should come after the problem figures on the left, if the sequence were continued?

  1. Problem Figures

Answer Figures

A          B          C         D          E

  1. Problem Figures

Answer Figures

A          B          C         D          E

  1. Problem Figures

Answer Figures

A          B          C         D          E

  1. Problem Figures

Answer Figures

A          B          C         D          E

  1. Problem Figures

Answer Figures

A          B          C         D          E

  1. Problem Figures

Answer Figures

A          B          C         D          E

  1. Problem Figures

Answer Figures

A          B          C         D          E

  1. Problem Figures

Answer Figures

A          B          C         D          E

  1. Problem Figures

Answer Figures

A          B          C         D          E

  1. Problem Figures

Answer Figures

       A            B          C         D          E


 

TEST II      ENGLISH LANGUAGE

Directions: (Q. Nos 51-60) In the following passage are blanks, each of the which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.

51 over the world, rights related to information technology that are already legally recognised are daily violated, 52 in the name of economic advancement, political stability or for personal greed and interest. Violations of these rights have 53 new problems in human social system, such as the digital divide, cybercrime, digital security and privacy concerns, all of which have 54 people’s lives either directly or indirectly.

It is important that countries come up with the guidelines for action to 55 the incidences of malicious attacks on the confidentiality, integrity and availability of electronic data and systems, computer related crimes, content related offenses and violations of intellectual property rights. 56 threats to critical infrastructure and national interest arising from the use of the internet for criminal and terrorist activities are of growing 57. The harm incurred to businesses, government and individuals in those countries in which the interent is used 58, is gaining in 59 and importance, which in other countries, cybercrime threatens the application of information and communication technology for government services, healthcare, trade and banking. As users start losing 60 in online transactions and business, the opportunity costs may become substantial.

  1. (a) Entire (b) Lot           (c) Great                 (d) All                     (e) Much
  2. (a) Scarcely (b) Whether           (c) And                   (d) For                             (e) Hardly
  3. (a) Created (b) Bent           (c) Pressured           (d) Risen                 (e) Stopped
  4. (a) Distanced (b) Affected           (c) Exaggerated       (d) Advanced           (e) Cropped
  5. (a) Engage (b) Conflict           (c) War                   (d) Combat              (e) Struggle
  6. (a) But (b) More           (c) Addition              (d) Beside                (e) Further
  7. (a) Concern (b) Nature           (c) Pattern               (d) Important           (e) Matter
  8. (a) Really (b) Figuratively (c) Widely                (d) Never                (e) Tandem
  9. (a) Fear (b) Days                  (c) Positivity            (d) Width                 (e) Scope
  10. (a) Tracks (b) Measure           (c) Confidence         (d) Mind                  (e) Grip

Directions (Q. Nos. 61-65) Rearrange the following six sentences (A), (B), (C), (D), (E) and (F) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them.

(A) It is no wonder that a majority of these excluded and low-achievers come from the most deprived sections of society.

(B) They are precisely those who are supposed to be empowered through education.

(C) With heightened political consciousness about the plight of these to –be–empowered person, never in the history of India has the demand for inclusive education been as fervent as today.

(D) Thy either never enroll or they drop out of school at different stages during these eight years.

(E) Of the nearly 200 million children in the age group between 6 and 14 years, more than half do not complete eight years of elementary education.

(F) Of those who do complete eight years of schooling, the achievement levels of a large percentage, in language and mathematics, is unacceptably low.

  1. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement?

(a) A            (b) B            (c) C             (d) D            (e) F

  1. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement?

(a) A            (b) B            (c) C             (d) D            (e) E

  1. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement?

(a) F             (b) E             (c) D            (d) C            (e) B

  1. Which of the following should be the FOURTH sentence after rearrangement?

(a) A            (b) B            (c) C             (d) D            (e) E

  1. Which of the following should be the FIFTH sentence after rearrangement?

(a) F             (b) E             (c) D            (d) B            (e) A

Direction (Q. Nos. 66-70) In each of the following sentences, an idiomatic expression or a proverb is highlighted. Select the alternative which best describes its use in the sentence.

  1. Facts spoke louder than words at the Company meeting where the Director tried to paint a rosy picture of the Company’s financial health.

(a) Too many facts related to the good financial health of the Company were presented during the meeting.

(b) The Company was not doing well financially despite the Director saying otherwise

(c) The Director was very loud while presenting the facts about the Company’s financial health during the meeting

(d) The facts stated in the meeting supported the Director’s claims of good financial health of the Company

(e) The Company was doing exceptionally well financially, despite the Director saying saying otherwise

  1. By initiating the fight with Sakshi in office, Kajal had killed the goose that lay the golden egg.

(a) By initiating the fight with Sakshi in office, Kajal had left her speechless.

(b) Kajal had ruined her chances of success by picking a fight with Sakshi in office

(c) Kajal had exacted her revenge by picking a fight with Sakshi in office

(d) Kajal had hurt Sakshi by picking a fight with her in office

(e) By initiating the fight with Sakshi in office, Kajal had missed getting the golden egg.

  1. I let the chips fall where they may and do not worry too much about what I want to do next.

(a) I take calculated risks              (b) I let others do what they want and do not interfere

(c) I am clumsy                           (d) I do not try to control my destiny        (e) I prefer chaos to calm.

  1. After trying hard to convince Narendra to change his ways. Raman realised that a leopard cannot change its spots.

(a) Raman realised that Narendra would never change his ways

(b) Raman realised that Narendra was helpless

(c) Raman realised that he was not good at convincing others

(d) Raman realised that Narendra would change his ways soon.

(e) Raman realised that someone else was forcing Narendra to act in a certain way.

  1. Before starting work on our new project, our mentor told us to not count our chickens before they hatched.

(a) Our mentor warned us against being over-confident about achieving success

(b) Our mentor asked us to meticulously count the chicken first and then the eggs

(c) Our mentor warned us against being over enthusiastic in implementing the project

(d) Our mentor warned us about all the challenges that lay ahead of us

(e) Our mentor informed us about the prizes that we would get on succeeding

 

Directions (Q.NoS. 71-85) Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error or idiomatic error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is ‘No error’, the answer is (e). (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any).

  1. The third season of (a) / the popular television show will ends (b) / on a grand note with (c) / celebrities dancing and having fun (d) / No error (e)
  2. The website, which does not (a) / accept advertisements and is funded (b) / entirely by donations, describes itself (c) / as the fifth most popular website on the planet (d) / No error (e)
  3. As sharing crime statistics for (a) / the year 2011, the Commissioner admitted that (b) / there had been an undue delay in (c) / the setting up of an anti-narcotics cell (d) / No error (e)
  4. The Moon may be the best place (a) / to look for aliens as their (b) / footprints on their surface would (c) / last far longer than radio signals (d) / No error (e)
  5. The judge advised the government to (a) / have metered autorickshaws across the state while (b) / recounting his personal experience where an autorickshaw driver (c) / made him to wait and also demanded Rs 100 (d) / No error (e)
  6. The Company aims (a) / kidnapped a child has now (b) / been apprehended and is being (c) / held in the city’s jail (d) / No error (e)
  7. The woman that had (a) / kidnapped a child has now (b) / been apprehended and is being (c) / held in the city’s jail (d) / No error (e)
  8. Rose growers in (a) / the city are waking up (b) / to the benefits (c) / of collective action (d) / No error (e)
  9. The Minister will have (a) / a tough task on his hands (b) / where three different recommendations (c) / for this year’s rate reach his desk (d) / No error (e)
  10. The current economic scenario (a) / could possibly undo (b) / the growth that followed (c) / the economic liberations of 1991 (d) / No error (e)
  11. In a first of its kind study, (a) / a team of scientists have tried to (b) / ‘grow’ new stem cells in (c) / the ear that get damage with age (d) / No error (e)
  12. If successful, the research could (a) / pave the way towards (b) / the prevention in untimely deaths (c) / due to fatal illnesses (d) / No error (e)
  13. The Ministry has directed Bank (a) / to do away with their (b) / separate promotion policies, a move (c) / strongly opposed by the officer’s unions (d) / No error (e)
  14. After a complaint was filed, (a) / police teams was given the photograph (b) / of the accused from the CCTV footage (c) / recorded at the hotel (d) / No error (e)
  15. Activists opposing the rail project said (a) / that the eleven new flyovers to be built (b) / would practically ring (c) / the death knell for the city (d) / No error (e)

Directions (Q.Nos. 86-100) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words/phrases have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.

In India innovation is emerging as one of the most important rubrics in the discourse on how to bring about greater and more consistent economic and social development. One observes steadily growing investments in R & D across the country, the setting up of national and state innovation bodies, as well as the introduction of government-sponsored innovation funds. There have also been several conferences and debates on innovation and how to best promote and accomplish it in India, and a number of articles on the subject, written for newspaper and magazines, as well as more informal platforms like online forums and Blogs.

Academic engagement and Indian authorship on the subject have also exploded in the last five years. Despite widespread agreement on the importance of innovation in India, there are wide gulfs between different conceptions of innovation and the path India should take towards securing benefits through investment in innovation.

Many Indian conservations around innovation begin by talking about jugaad, that uniquely Indian approach to a temporary fix when something complex, like an automobile or a steam engine stops working. However, many observers have pointed out that while jugaad is certainly innovative, it is a response to the lack of an innovation culture – more a survival or coping mechanism at a time of need than a systematic methodology to effectively address a wide-ranging, complex set of problems.

Another specifically Indian approach to innovation that has entered into wide currency of late is so-called ‘frugal innovation’, deemed by many to be the most appropriate for the Indian context. In its midterm assessment of 11th five-year plan, the Planning Commission stressed the need for innovation in India in order to accelerate its growth and to make growth more inclusive as well as environmentally sustainable. The document went on to say that India needs more frugal innovation that produces more frugal cost products and services that are affordable by people at low levels of incomes without compromising the safety, efficiency and utility of the products. The country also needs processes of innovation that are frugal in the resources required to produce the innovations. The products and processes must also have frugal impact on the Earth’s resources.

Two people formulated a similar theory called the More-from-Less-for-More (MLM theory of innovation) theory of Innovation, which advocates a focus on innovations that allow for more production using fewer resources but benefit more people. Under this rubric come products that are more affordable versions of existing technologies. While both frugal innovation and the MLM theory are certainly valuable in terms of bringing affordable products and services to a greater number of people and may even be considered a necessary first step on India’s innovation path, they barely graze the surface of what innovation can accomplish. That is, innovation is capable of bringing about complete paradigm-shifts and redefining the way we perceive and interact with the world.

Take the cell phone, for example: It revolutionized communication in a previously inconceivable way, provided consumers with a product of unprecedented value and created an entirely new market. The cell phone was a result of years of directed, intentional innovation efforts and large investments, and would not have ever been created if the people responsible simply set out to make the existing telephone cheaper and more accessible to all.

While jugaad and frugal innovation may be indicative of the Indian potential for innovativeness, this potential is not utilized or given opportunity to flourish due to the lack of an enabling culture.

India’s many diverse and complex needs can be met only through systematic innovation and major shifts have to first take place in our educational institutions, government policies and commercial firms in order for such an innovation-enabling culture to come about.

The one thing that India’s innovation theorists have not said is that the absence of a culture of innovation is intrinsically linked to many of the most intractable problems facing India as a nation. These include poor delivery of government services, inadequate systems of personal identification and the absence of widely available financial services for rural poor, health and sanitation failures. This list can go on. Cumulatively, the inability of India as a nation, society and economy to adequately provide for its own population no longer reflects a failure of implementation, but rather of a failure of innovation, for there are not immediately-available off-the-shelf solutions that would make it possible for these grand challenges facing India to be redressed. Rather, we need to look at these intractable problems from the sophisticated and empowering lens of innovation, for them to begin to be solved.

  1. Which of the following depict/s the growing importance of innovation in India?

(a) Increased investment in research.

(b) Initiation of Govt. backed funds for innovation.

(c) Increase in number of conferences arranged and articles written on innovation

(1) Only (b)   (2) (a) and (b)         (3) Only (c)    (4) (b) and (c)         (5) All of these

  1. Which of the following best describes the MLM theory of innovation?

(a) Maximise output by using least number of resources and benefiting a small number of people

(b) Maximise resource utilization and cost thereby benefit maximum number of people

(c) Minimise output and resource utilization, yet benefit the maximum number of people

(d) Benefit most number of people through least usage of resources and maximum output

(e) Benefit most number of people through maximum usage of resources and minimizing cost

  1. Which of the following is possibly the most appropriate title for the passage?

(a) Innovation At Its Best                                 (b) India And The Elixir Called Innovation

(c) Innovation Around The World vis-a-vis India And Other Neighbouring Countries

(d) Worldwide Development In Innovation            (e) Innovation- The History

  1. What tone is the author employing in the entire passage to get his message across?

(a) Pessimistic          (b) Sarcastic            (c) Urgent      (d) Informative        (e) Dubious

  1. Why, according to the author, is India unable to adequately provide for its people?

(a) Failure to implement schemes and initiatives meant for the Indian populace

(b) Absence of regulatory authorities to overse the implementations process

(c) Failure to innovate in order to find solutions

(d) Lack of governmental schemes and initiatives to redress the challenges faced by India

(e) Hesitance of the Indian people in trying out different schemes provided by the Government for upliftment

  1. What, according to some people, is ‘jugaad’ not the answer to India’s problems?

(a) Many a times this methodology backfires leading to further complications

(b) ‘Jugaad’ provides only cheap solutions to all problems

(c) It is reactive and not a proactive and organized method of finding solutions to problems

(d) It can provide solutions to only simple problems and not complex ones

(e) None of the above

  1. Which of the following is/are true about the cell phone?

(a) The innovation of the cell phone required investment of huge capital.

(b) The cell phone, when invented was meant to be affordable to all.

(c) The cell phone was made available to the public in a very short time its ideation.

(1) Only (a)   (2) (a) and (b)         (3) (b) and (c)         (4) Only (b)   (5) All of these

  1. What does the author mean by ‘frugal impact on the Earth’s resources’ as given in the passage?

(a) The damage to the environment should be assessable

(b) More consumption of natural resources as compared to manmade ones

(c) Minimum impact on the environment in terms of pollution

(d) The impact on the environment should be such that it is reversible

(e) Minimum usage of Earth’s natural resources

Directions (Q.Nos. 94-98) choose the word/group of words which is most similar in meaning to the word/ group of words printed in bold as used in the passage.

  1. REDRESSED

(a) Addressed          (b) Equalized            (c) Restored            (d) Redone    (e) Rearranged

  1. 95. CURRENCY

(a) Notes                (b) Usage                (c) Money               (d) Cash        (e) Value

  1. INTRINSICALLY

(a) Internally           (b) Whole-heartedly            (c) Fundamentally     (d) Virtually    (e) Unavoidably

  1. INDICATIVE

(a) Causative           (b) Forthcoming       (c) Verbal      (d) Abstract   (e) Suggestive

  1. COMPROMISING

(a) Co-operating with (b) Reducing the quality       (c) Hampering the progress

(d) Conciliating in order to    (e) Adjusting for the better

Directions (Q. Nos. 99-100) Choose the word/group of words which is most opposite in meaning to the word/group of words printed in bold as used in the passage.

  1. LACK

(a) Presence            (b) Sufficiency         (c) Charisma            (d) Adequacy (d) Dearth

  1. INCONCEIVABLE

(a) Visible                (b) Truthful             (c) Incredible           (d) Apparent  (e) Complex

TEST – III

QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE

Directions (Q. Nos. 101 – 105) what will come in place of question mark (?) in the following questions?

  1. 475 + 64% of 9504 = 900 + ?

(a) 183         (b) 233         (c) 1983        (d) 1863        (e) None of these

(a) 17           (b) 2             (c) 18           (d) 3             (e) None of these

  1. 534.596 + 61.472 – 496. 708 =? + 27. 271

(a) 126.631    (b) 62.069     (c) 72.089     (d) 132.788    (e) None of these

  1. 16 × 12 – 672 ÷ 21 = ? – 211

(a) 381         (b) 347         (c) 372          (d) 311         (e) None of these

(a) 4+4      (b) 4         (c)      (e) 9             (e) None of these

 

Directions (Q. Nos. 106 – 110) what approximate value will come in place of question mark (?) in the following questions? (You are not excepted to calculate the exact value)

  1. 9228.789 – 5021.832 + 1496.989 =?

(a) 6500        (b) 6000        (c) 6300        (d) 5700        (e) 5100

  1. 1002 ÷ 49 × 99 – 1299 = ?

(a) 700         (b) 600         (c) 900          (d) 250         (e) 400

  1. 29.8% of 260 + 60.01% of 510 – 103.57 =?

(a) 450         (b) 320         (c) 210          (d) 280         (e) 350

(a) 25           (b) 120         (c) 10           (d) 65           (e) 140

(a) 110         (b) 90           (c) 200          (d) 160         (e) 125

 

Directions (Q. Nos. 111 – 115) what will come in place of question mark (?) in the following number series?

  1. 7 20 46 98 202?

(a) 420         (b) 410         (c) 310          (d) 320         (e) None of these

  1. 210 209 213 186 202?

(a) 138         (b) 77           (c) 177          (d) 327         (e) None of these

  1. 27 38 71 126 203?

(a) 212         (b) 202         (c) 301          (d) 312         (e) None of these

  1. 435 354 282 219 165?

(a) 103         (b) 112         (c) 120          (d) 130         (e) None of these

  1. 4 200 369 513 634?

(a) 788         (b) 715         (c) 734          (d) 755         (e) None of these

  1. The angels of quadrilateral are in the ratio of 2:4:7:5. The smallest angle of the quadrilateral is equal to the smallest angle of a triangle. One of the angles of the triangle is twice the smallest angle of the triangle. What is the second largest of the triangle?

(a) 80°          (b) 60°          (c) 120°        (d) Cannot be determined    (e) None of these

  1. A shopkeeper sells notebooks at the rate of Rs. 45 each and earns a commission of 4%. He also sells pencil box at the rate of Rs. 80 each and earns a commission of 20%. How much amount of commission will he earn in two weeks if he sells 10 notebooks and 6 pencil boxes a day?

(a) Rs. 1956   (b) Rs. 1586   (c) Rs. 1496   (d) Rs. 1596   (e) None of these

  1. Train – A crosses a stationary Train – B in 50 s and a pole in 20 s with the same speed. The length of the Train – A is 240m. What is the length of the stationary Train – B?

(a) 360m       (b) 260m       (c) 300m       (d) Cannot be determined    (e) None of these

  1. In a test, minimum passing percentage for girls and boys is 35% and 40% respectively. A boy scored 483 marks and failed by 117 marks. What are the minimum passing marks for girls?

(a) 425         (b) 520         (c) 500          (d) 625         (e) None of these

  1. Twelve per cent of Kaushal’s monthly salary is equal to sixteen per cent of Nandhini’s monthly salary. Suresh’s monthly salary is half that of Nandhini’s monthly salary. If Suresh’s annual salary is R. 1.08 lacs. What is Kaushal’s monthly salary?

(a) Rs. 20000 (b) Rs. 18000 (c) Rs. 26000 (d) Rs. 24000 (e) None of these

  1. 8 men can complete a piece of work in 20 days. 8 women can complete the same work in 32 days. In how many days will 5 men and 8 women together complete the same work?

(a) 16 days    (b) 12 days    (c) 14 days    (d) 10 days    (e) None of these

  1. The area of square is 1024 sq cm. what is the respective ratio between the length and the breadth of a rectangle whose length is twice the side of the square and breadth is 12 cm less than the side of the square?

(a) 5:18        (b) 16:7        (c) 14:5        (d) 32:5        (e) None of these

  1. The sum of five consecutive even numbers of set A is 220. What is the sum of a different set of five consecutive numbers whose second lowest number in 37 less than double of the lowest number set A?

(a) 223         (b) 225         (c) 235          (d) 243         (e) None of these

  1. The bus fare for one person is Rs. 420 from Agra to Aligarh and train fare between the same places for one person is equal to three – fourth the bus fare for two persons between the same places. What is the total fare paid by 2 persons travelling by bus and 4 persons travelling by train between the two places?

(a) Rs. 3360   (b) Rs. 3460   (c) Rs. 3440   (d) Rs. 3406   (e) None of these

  1. The respective ratio between the speeds of a car, a jeep and a tractor is 3:5:2. The speed of the jeep is 250 percent the speed of the tractor which covers 360 km in 12 h. what is the average speed of car and jeep together?

(a) 6 Km/h    (b) 75 km/h   (c) 40 km/h   (d) Cannot be determined    (e) None of these

 

Directions (Q. Nos. 126 – 130): In the following questions two equations numbered I and II are given. You have to solve both equations. and …..

Give answer if

(a) x > y       (b) x ≥ y       (c) x < y       (d) x ≤ y

(e) x =y or the relationship cannot be established

  1. I.
  2. I.
  3. I.
  4. I.
  5. I.

 

Directions (Q. Nos. 131 – 135): Study the following table carefully to answer the questions that follow.

Number of Students (in thousands) passed out from five different Colleges during six different Years

YEAR Colleges
P Q R S T
200520062007

2008

2009

2010

9.37.210.4

11.4

13.2

12.7

9.610.412.6

16.9

19.3

18.7

8.76.29.8

11.3

7.8

13.7

10.412.69.8

15.4

13.9

16.7

9.813.714.9

16.3

11.8

15.7

 

  1. What was the respective ratio between the number of students passed out from College – P in the year 2008 and number of students passed out form College – S in the year 2006?

(a) 38:41       (b) 23:29       (c) 19:21                (d) 17:21       (e) None of these

  1. Number of students passed out from College – R in the year 2008 was approximately what percentage of the total 2006, 2007 and 2009 together?

(a) 20           (b) 33           (c) 24                     (d) 38           (e) 28

  1. What was the average number of students passed out from all the colleges together in the year 2007?

(a) 13500      (b) 57500      (c) 1.15 thousands    (d) 11500      (e) None of these

  1. In which college was the number of students passed out in the year 2008 second highest?

(a) Q            (b) P             (c) T                      (d) S            (e) R

  1. In which college the number of the students passed out continuously increased during the year 2005 to 2010?

(a) Only R and T                (b) Only Q               (c) Only P      (d) Only Q and T

(e) None of the above

 

Directions (Q. Nos. 136 – 140): Study the following Pie – chart carefully to answer these questions.

  1. If two – ninth of the teachers who teach Physics are female then number of male Physics teachers is approximately what percentage of the total number of teachers who teach Chemistry?

(a) 57           (b) 42           (c) 63           (d) 69           (e) 51

  1. What is the total number of teachers teaching Chemistry, English and Biology?

(a) 1226        (b) 1116        (c) 1176        (d) 998         (e) None of these

  1. What is the difference between the total number of teachers who teach English and Physics together and the total number of teachers who teach Mathematics and Biology together?

(a) 352         (b) 342         (c) 643          (d) 653         (e) None of these

  1. What is the respective ratio of the number of teachers who teach Mathematics and the number of teachers who teach Hindi?

(a) 13:7        (b) 7:13        (c) 7:26        (d) 8:15        (e) None of the above

  1. If the percentage of Mathematics teachers is increased by 50 percent and percentage of Hindi teachers decreased by 25 per cent then what will be the total number of Mathematics and Hindi teachers together?

(a) 390         (b) 379         (c) 459          (d) 480         (e) None of these

 

Directions: (Q. Nos. 141 – 145): Study the following graph and answer the question that follow.

  1. What is the difference between the number of candidates appeared from institutions – B, C, D and F together and candidates passed form institutions – A, E and G together?

(a) 100         (b) 900         (c) 1000        (d) 540         (e) None of these

  1. What is the average number of candidates passed from all the institutions together?

(a) 700         (b) 490         (c) 350          (d) 675         (e) None of these

  1. Number of candidates passed form institutions – C and E together is approximately what percentage of the total number of candidates appeared from institutions – A and G together?

(a) 72           (b) 62           (c) 54            (d) 75           (e) 67

  1. From which institution the different between the appeared candidates and passed candidates is maximum?

(a) B            (b) G            (c) D            (d) F             (e) None of these

  1. What is the respective ratio between the number of candidates who have field from institutions – B and the number of candidates who have appeared from institution – F?

(a) 2:5                   (b) 2:3          (c) 4:3          (d) 1:3          (e) None of these

 

Directions (Q. Nos. 146 – 150): Study the following information carefully to answer the questions that follow.

A company produces 4 different products viz. ACs fans, refrigerators and ovens each product of two different qualities, i.e., Quality – A and Quality – B. The Company products are fans out of which 35% are of Quality – B. Fifteen per cent of the total number of products are ACs. Two – third of AC’s are of Quality – A. Twenty five per cent of the total number of products are refrigerators out of which 40’ are of Quality – B. Ten per cent of the number of ovens are of Quality – B.

  1. What is the total number of AC’s and ovens of Quality – B fans and refrigerators of Quality – A together made by Company?

(a) 165         (b) 205         (c) 155          (d) 185         (e) None of these

  1. What is the average number of products of Quality – A made by the company?

(a) 90           (b) 75           (c) 80           (d) 95           (e) None of these

  1. What is the respective ratio between the number of ovens of Quality – B and the number of fans of Quality – A?

(a) 5:2                   (b) 4:13        (c) 5:13        (d) 4:9          (e) None of these

  1. What is the difference between the numbers of ACs of Quality – A and Quality – B?

(a) 25           (b) 50           (c) 35           (d) 40           (e) None of these

  1. Number of refrigerators of Quality – A is approximately what percentage of the total number of ovens (both Quality – A and B together)?

(a) 39           (b) 31           (c) 35           (d) 43           (e) 49

TEST – IV

PROFESSIONAL KNOWLEDGE

  1. A passive threat to computer security is ──.

(a) Malicious Incent   (b) Sabotage  (c) Accidental Errors  (d) Espionage Agents (e) None of these

  1. The secure Electronic Transaction (SET) specification

(a) is a notice, issued and verified by a certificate authority, that guarantees a user or web site is   legitimate

(b) provides private-key encryption of all data that passes between a client and a server

(c) allows users to choose an encryption scheme for the data that passes between a client and a server

(d) uses a public-key encryption to secure credit –card transaction systems

(e) None of these

  1. ─── allows wireless mobile devices to access the Internet and it services such as the Web and e-mail.

(a) TCP/IP     (b) Ethernet   (c) WAP        (d) Token ring          (e) None of these

  1. ‘DOS’ floppy disk does not have ────.

(a) A Boot Record     (b) A File Allocation Table     (c) A Root Directory  (d) Virtual Memory (e) BIOS

  1. ‘MICR’ technologies used for clearance of cheques by banks refer to ───.

(a) Magnetic Ink Character Recognition                (b) Magnetic Intelligence Character Recognition

(c) Magnetic Information Cable Recognition (d) Magnetic Insurance Cases Recognition

(e) None of these

  1. All the information collected during database development is stored in a ───.

(a) repository 9b) data warehouse  (c) RAD         (d) CASE       (e) None of these

  1. The ____ component is used by the data analyst to create the queries that access the database.

(a) data extraction    (b) end-user query tool       (c) end-user presentation tool        (d) data store

(e) None of these

  1. A(n) _____ allows network users to share a single copy of software, which resides on the network server.

(a) single-user license agreement (b) network site license          (c) end-user license agreement

(d) business software license         (e) None of these

  1. A polymorphic virus ____.

(a) Modifies its program code each time it attaches it-self to another program or file

(b) is a malicious-logic program that copies itself repeatedly in memory or on a disk drive until no memory or disk space remains

(c) a malicious-logic program that hides with in or looks like a legitimate program

(d) infects a program file, but still reports the size and creation date of the original, uninfected program

(e) None of these

  1. Microwave transmission is used in environments where installing physical transmission media is ____.

(a) difficult or impossible and where line-of-sight transmission is unavailable

(b) easy or promising and where line-of-sight is unavailable

(c) difficult or impossible and where line-of-sight transmission is available

(d) easy or promising and where line-of-sight transmission is available

(e) None of these

  1. Which is NOT a good Web security strategy?

(a) Restrict access to the Web server; keep a minimum number of ports open

(b) Limit the users who can loads software, edit or add files

(c) Add demo programs, so users can test system without accessing production data

(d) Remove unnecessary compilers and interpreters

(e) None of these

  1. The altering of data so that it is not usable unless the changes are undone is ___.

(a) Biometrics (b) Compression       (c) Encryption          (d) Ergonomics         (e) None of these

  1. The word FTP stands for ___

(a) File Translate Protocol              (b) File Transit Protocol       (c) File Typing Protocol

(d) File Transfer Protocol               (e) None of these

  1. Voice mail ____.

(a) is the exchange of text messages and computer files transmitted via a communications network such as a local area network or the Internet

(b) Permits user to converse in real time with each other via the computer while connected to the Internet

(c) functions much like an answering machine, allowing callers to leave a voice message for the called party

(d) involves using video and computer technology to conduct a meeting between participants at geographically separate locations

(e) None of these

  1. A communications processor that connects dissimilar networks by providing the translation from one set of protocol to another is _____.

(a) Bridge      (b) Gateway   (c) Router      (d) Modem     (e) All of these

  1. Which of the following is a general-purpose programming language, designed by Sun Microsystems, and well suited for use on the web?

(a)  VBScript  (b) JavaScript          (c) CSS         (d) JAVA        (e) None of these

  1. This ____ tier processes HTTP protocol, scripting tasks, performs calculations, and provides access to data.

(a) Client       (b) Applications/Web server           (c) Enterprise server (d) DBA         (e) None of these

  1. RSA is _____.

(a) Symmetric Cryptosystem                   (b) Asymmetric Cryptosystem        (c) Block Cypher

(d) Digital Signature                     (e) None of these

  1. A DVD-RAM is similar to a ___, except it has storage capacities up to 5.2 GB.

(a) CD-R       (b) floppy disk         (c) CD-RW     (d) hard disk  (e) None of these

  1. When you are selecting a mouse for a particular computer system, what is the most important consideration?

(a) The type of drivers that come with the mouse                    (b) The length of the mouse cord

(c) The type of connector the mouse is equipped with               (d) The number of buttons the mouse has (e) None of these

  1. How is power supplied to a low-power USB device?

(a) Through a power cable                                (b) From an external power supply

(c) Directly from the computer’s power supply     (d) Through the USB cable             (e) None of these

  1. All of the following are basic principles of networks, except

(a) each computer must have a network card      (b) there must be communications media connecting the network hardware devices   (c) there must be at least one connecting devices (d) each computer must have software  that supports the movement of information (e) None of these

  1. This _____ data mining technique derives rules from real world case examples.

(a) Rule discover      (b) Signal processing          (c) Neural nets         (d) Case-based reasoning

(e) None of these

  1. _____ are used to identify a user who returns to a Web site.

(a) Cookies    (b) Plug-ins    (c) Scripts     (d) ASPs        (e) None of these

  1. Which of the following statements is not true about two –tier client-server architecture?

(a) SQL statements are processed on the server

(b) SQL statements may be processed on some of the clients

(c) Business logic is mostly processed on clients

(d) Business logic may be processed on the server

(e) None of these

  1. Which of the following objects is passed to a Java Bean when one of its properties is set via a JSP action?

(a) ServletRequest             (b) HttpServletRequest        (c) ServletResponse

(d) HttpServletResponse      (e) None of these

  1. Programs that automatically submit your search request to several search engines simultaneously are called ___

(a) Metasearch engines       (b) Webcrawlers       (c) Spiders     (d) Hits         (e) None of these

  1. In Oracle, which statement is true about segments?

(a) Each table has its own segment

(b) A segment is created every time an extent is created, extended, or altered

(c) An index segment is created every time a table is created

(d) A segment is deleted whenever a table is truncated

(e) None of these

  1. Graphical diagrams used to represent different multiple perspectives of system include__

(a) use-case, class, and state diagrams              (b) state, interaction, derivative diagrams

(c) interaction, relationship, and class diagrams

(d) deployment, relationship, and use-case diagrams       (e) None of these

  1. Database redesign is not terribly difficult if the ____.

(a) database is strucrted                         (b) database is well-designed         (c) database has no data

(d) database is relatively small                 (e) database is relatively large

  1. Which of the following are normally used in initialize a computer system’s hardware?

(a) Bootstrap memory                  (b) Volatile memory            (c) External mass memory

(d) Static memory              (e) Random access memory

  1. If you wanted to locate the hardware address of a local device, which protocol would you use?

(a) ARP                   (b) RARP       (c) ICMP        (d) PING        (e) PONG

  1. Which of the following switching methods provides the greatest frame throughput?

(a) Store-and-forward switching     (b) Frame-tag-switching                (c) Cut-through switching

(d) ISL switching                          (e) Store-and-backward switching

  1. In Oracle, what is the default number of transactions that MAXTRANS is set to if not specified?

(a) 512                   (b) 10           (c) 4             (d) 1             (e) 255

  1. In the straight CGI approach to database connectivity on the Internet____.

(a) the external program is located between the client and the web server

(b) the external program is located between the database server and database

(c) the external program is located between the web server and the database server

(d) there is no external program

(e) None of these

  1. If 20 people need to communicate using symmetric-key cryptography, ___ symmetric keys are needed.

(a) 190                   (b) 200         (c) 20           (d) 19           (e) 210

  1. What is Internet2?

(a) A new type of cabling system for Wide Area Networks

(b) A second local area network that can connect with another online LAN to share access

(c) A new standard for Internet browsers

(d) An association to develop advanced Internet technology

(e) None of these

  1. In Oracle, which tablespace is the minimum required when creating a new database?

(a) Undo tablespace  (b) Temporary tablespace    (c) System tablespace

(d) Users tablespace (e) None of these

  1. The reason the data outputs of most ROM ICs are tri-state outputs is to ____.

(a) allow for three separate data input lines

(b) allow the bidirectional flow of data between the bus lines and the ROM registers

(c) permit the connection of may ROM chips to a common data bus

(d) isolate her registers from the data bus during read operations

(e) None of these

  1. The term, “hypertext”, means

(a) Non-sequential writing    (b) Hypermedia        (c) Blinking text        (d) Text with heavy formatting

(e) None of these

  1. While searching a website, you have been unable to find information that was on the site several months ago. What might you do to attempt to locate that information?

(a) Visit Google’s cached page to view the older copy

(b) Forget about it, as there is no way to find this information

(c) Visit a partner site of the organisation to see if it is there

(d) Use the wayback machine

(e) None of these

  1. Which kind of lock includes a keypad that can be used to control access into areas?

(a) Cipher      (b) Warded    (c) Device      (d) Tumbler   (e) Typelock

  1. A _____ sometimes called a boot sector virus, executes when a computer boots up because it resides in the boot sector of a floppy disk or the master boot record of a hard disk.

(a) system virus       (b) Trojan horse virus         (c) file virus   (d) macro virus        (e) None of these

  1. To which pin on the RAM chip does the address decoder connect in order to signal which memory chip is being accessed?

(a) The address input          (b) The output enable (c) The chip enable  (d) The data input     (e) The data output

  1. What is the name of protocol used in eliminate loops?

(a) Switching  (b) ISL          (c) Frame tagging     (d) Spanning Tree Protocol   (e) None of these

  1. The process by which the structure of the database is modified to eliminate hidden dependencies and repeating groups is ____.

(a) enforcing data integrity  (b) enforcing referential integrity    (c) indexing    (d) normalization

(e) None of these

  1. Which of the following describes programs that can run independently, travel from system to system, and disrupt computer communications?

(a) Trojans    (b) Viruses     (c) Idlers       (d) Droppers  (e) Worms

  1. In Oracle, who owns the data dictionary?

(a) Oracle      (b) SYS         (c) The DBA   (d) SYSTEM    (e) None of these

  1. You need to configure a switch from a remote subnet. Which of the following must be configured on the switch?

(a) Console Port       (b) IP            (c) Hostname           (d) SNMP       (e) Default Gateway

  1. In Oracle, which is more appropriate to store a small list of values in a single column in each row in your address table?

(a) ORACARRAY        (b) Nested table       (c) Index organized table     (d) Index       (e) VARRAY

Answer Key

  1. (c) 2. (e) 3. (b)            4. (a)            5. (a)            6. (d)            7. (e)
  2. (b) 9. (d) 10. (e)          11. (e)          12. (d)          13. (d)          14. (c)
  3. (d) 16. (d) 17. (a)          18. (c)          19. (b)          20. (e)          21. (b)
  4. (d) 23. (b) 24. (e)          25. (c)          26. (e)          27. (c)          28. (a)
  5. (d) 30. (e) 31. (d)          32, (e)          33. (e)          34. (b)          35. (a)
  6. (d) 37. (c) 38. (e)          39. (a)          40. (b)          41. (e)          42. (c)
  7. (a) 44. (b) 45. (b)          46. (e)          47. (d)          48. (a)          49. (a)
  8. (d) 51. (d) 52. (b)          53. (a)          54. (b)          55. (d)          56. (e)
  9. (a) 58. (c)          59. (c)          60. (c)          61. (e)          62. (e)          63. (c)
  10. (a) 65. (d)          66. (b)          67. (b)          68. (d)          69. (a)          70. (a)
  11. (b) 72. (d)          73. (a)          74. (c)          75. (d)          76. (d)          77. (d)
  12. (e) 79. (c)          80. (d)          81. (b)          82. (c)          83. (d)          84. (b)
  13. (e) 86. (e)          87. (d)          88. (b)          89. (d)          90. (c)          91. (c)
  14. (a) 93. (e)          94. (a)          95. (b)          96. (a)          97. (e)          98. (b)
  15. (b) 100. (a)        101. (a)        102. (b)        103. (c)         104. (e)        105. (d)
  16. (d) 107. (a) 108. (d)        109. (a)        110. (e)        111. (b)        112. (b)
  17. (e) 114. (c) 115. (c)         116. (b)        117. (d)        118. (a)        119. (e)
  18. (d) 121. (a)       122. (e)        123. (e)        124. (a)        125. (a)        126. (a)
  19. (e) 128. (e) 129. (e)        130. (c)         131. (c)         132. (e)        133. (d)
  20. (c) 135. (e)       136. (a)        137. (b)        138. (b)        139. (e)        140. (c)
  21. (c) 142. (a) 143. (e)        144. (c)         145. (b)        146. (e)        147. (d)
  22. (b) 149. (a)        150. (d)        151. (a)        152. (d)        153. (c)         154. (e)
  23. (a) 156. (a) 157. (b)        158. (b)        159. (a)        160. (c)         161. (d)
  24. (c) 163. (d) 164. (c)         165. (b)        166. (d)        167. (b)        168. (b)
  25. (c) 170. (c) 171. (d)        172. (d)        173. (d)        174. (a)        175. (c)
  26. (e) 177. (a) 178. (b)        179. (a)        180. (c)         181. (a)        182. (a)
  27. (c) 184. (d) 185. (a)        186. (a)        187. (d)        188. (a)        189. (c)
  28. (b) 191. (a) 192. (a)        193. (e)        194. (c)         195. (d)        196. (d)
  29. (e) 198. (b) 199. (e)        200. (e)
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