RBI Grade B – Prelims previous year paper

RBI Grade B - Prelims previous year paper

D.1-5) Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions.

A, B, C, D and E are sitting in a row 1 facing south and P, Q, R, S and T are in row 2 facing north. Each row contains six seats and there is one vacant seat. Only neighbour of A is facing Q. T sits fourth to the right of Q. A doesn’t sit at the extreme end of the line. Number of persons sit to the right of T is same as number of persons sit to the right of C. T doesn’t face the vacant seat. No person sits between A and B. D sits to the right of E. S doesn’t face A but sits to the immediate left of R. R is related to T in the same way E is related to D. Vacant seat is not there between Q and S.

Q.1) What is the position of vacant seat in row 1 with respect to one of the extreme end?

a) Fourth to the left

b) Second to the right

c) Third to the left

d) Either a or c

e) None of these

Q.2) Who sits fourth to the left of the person who faces the vacant seat in row2?
a) A

b) B

c) C

d) D

e) E

Q.3) Which of the following member(s) is/are immediate neighbours of the vacant seat in row 2?

a) Q and P

b) R and T

c) Only Q

d) Can’t be determined

e) Only T

Q.4) If E is related to R in the same way D is related to S then B is related to which of the following?

a) P

b) Q

c) R

d) S

e) Vacant seat

Q.5) If F is placed in the vacant seat in row 1 then what is the position of F with respect to E?

a) Third to the right

b) Second to the right

c) Immediate right

d) Either (a) or (c)

e) None of these

D.6-8) In each of the following questions are based on the following information. Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions.

I. $ W & means & is at 3 metre to the East of $.

II. $ S & means & is at 2 metre to the North of $.

III. $ E & means & is at 1 metre to the West of $.

IV. $ N & means & is at 4 metre to the South of $.

Q.6) What is the direction of £ with respect to % according to the expression # W % E ® S @ N £?

a) North-East

b) North-West

c) South-West

d) South-East

e) Can’t be determined

Q.7) @ W £ S % E © ? $ W ® S &, which one of the following letter replace the ‘?’ mark if £ is 2 metre west of & is definitely true?

a) W

b) N

c) E

d) S

e) Can’t be determined

Q.8) According to © S ® E £ N $ W % S & E @ N €, what is the distance between @ and ©?

a) 1 metre

b) 2 metre

c) 3 metre

d) 4 metre

e) None of these

D.9-13) Read the following information carefully and answer the following questions.

Six friends are Vijay, Manoj, Shanmu, Vishnu, Muneesh and Saran working in different Companies- Wipro, CTS, TCS, Amazon, Tech Mahindra and Microsoft and they are living in six different floors of a building, numbered 1 to 6 (Lower most floor is numbered 1 and the above floor is numbered 2 and so on) . Each has six different bikes BMW K, Ducati, Harley, FZ, Royal Enfield and MV Agusta, but not necessarily in the same order. Each person attend meeting on different days of week from Monday to Saturday.

The one who works in Wipro has BMW K bike and attends meeting on Monday. Muneesh and Vijay live on even numbered floors and they have meeting on Saturday and Monday. Muneesh who does not has Harley bike is not a neighbour of Manoj, and has meeting on Saturday. The one who works in TCS lives the floor immediately below to Shanmu and attends meeting on Thursday. Saran has Royal Enfield bike and he has only one neighbour. One of the persons who live in the even numbered floor has meeting on Friday. Vishnu, who works in Tech Mahindra lives three floors below to Shanmu and he has MV Agusta and he has meeting on the before Thursday. Shanmu, who lives on sixth floor has Ducati and his company is CTS.

Q.9) Muneesh has which among the following bike?

a) BMW K

b) Ducati

c) FZ

d) Royal Enfield

e) None of these

Q.10) Who among the following may working in Microsoft?

a) Vijay

b) Manoj

c) Muneesh

d) Vishnu

e) Shanmu

Q.11) Who among the following has meeting on Thursday?

a) The one who lives in sixth floor

b) The one who lives in lowermost floor

c) The one who works in Tech Mahindra

d) The one who works in TCS

e) None of these

Q.12) Which of the following combinations may true?

a) Vijay – Monday – Wipro – BMW K – 3RD floor

b) Shanmu – Ducati – TCS – Friday – 6th floor

c) Muneesh – Amazon – FZ- Tuesday – 2nd floor

d) Vishnu –Wednesday –Tech Mahindra -3rd floor – MV Agusta

e) None of these

Q.13) If Muneesh is related to Vijay, then Vijay is related to which among the following?

a) Vishnu

b) Shanmu

c) Saran

d) Manoj

e) None of these.
D.14-18) Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:

In Certain code language

“Look Your Smart” is written as “39#4 43&3 23&3”

“Chance Come Rule” is written as “8&3 8#5 23&3”

“Emergency Times Fired” is written as “10*4 39*4 30@8”

“Never Ever Giveup” is written as “23&3 23*5 32*4”

Q.14) What is the possible code for “Private sector” in the given code language?

a) 19#6 37#5

b) 36#5 20#6

c) 21*6 37@4

d) 37#5 21#6

e) None of these

Q.15) What may be the word for the code”21@10” in the given code language?

a) Technology

b) Available

c) Achievement

d) Communication

e) None of these

Q.16) What is the code for “Walk before Others” in the given code language?

a) 33*3 34#5 7*5

b) 34*3 6*5 34*5

c) 34*3 7*5 32$5

d) 34*3 7*5 34#5

e) None of these

Q.17) What is the possible code for “Pounds” in the given code language?

a) 34#5

b) 33&5

c) 35*6

d) 35#5

e) None of these

Q.18) What is the code for “Collection” in the given code language?

a) 16@8

b) 14@8

c) 16@9

d) 15@8

e) 17@9

D.19-23) Read the following passage carefully. Questions are in the form of several possible inferences which can be drawn from the facts that stated in the passage. You have to examine each inference separately in the context of the passage and decide upon its degree of truth and falsity.

Passage:

The complexion of the world economy has changed beyond recognition. A few years ago, the Soviet Union and its friends used to accuse the World Bank, IMF and other international institutions as the promoters of economic imperialism of USA and its allies and in the same breath as the bloodsuckers of the poorer member-countries GATT for them was a rich man’s club. In their views, transnational corporations were worse than the dreaded buccaneers. These corporations worked exclusively for the benefit of parent countries and exploited the host countries thoroughly. Economic relations of communist countries remained chiefly confined within the four walls of communism. However, it crossed over to some third world countries as well.

Q.19) The Soviet Union was not a member of GATT.

a) If the inference is definitely true

b) If the inference is probably true

c) If the data are inadequate to answer

d) If the inference is probably false

e) If the inference is definitely false

Q.20) The IMF is not accused of being a promoter of economic imperialism of USA anymore.

a) If the inference is definitely true

b) If the inference is probably true

c) If the data are inadequate to answer

d) If the inference is probably false

e) If the inference is definitely false

Q.21) Soviet Union had economic relations with the USA.

a) If the inference is definitely true

b) If the inference is probably true

c) If the data are inadequate to answer

d) If the inference is probably false

e) If the inference is definitely false

Q.22) The world’s economic scenario has changed rapidly because of a change in the stance of the communist nations.

a) If the inference is definitely true

b) If the inference is probably true

c) If the data are inadequate to answer

d) If the inference is probably false

e) If the inference is definitely false

Q.23) GATT has stopped exploiting its host countries.

a) If the inference is definitely true

b) If the inference is probably true

c) If the data are inadequate to answer

d) If the inference is probably false

e) If the inference is definitely false

Q.24) X is the only son of Z’s father’s wife’s mother, then how is X related to Z?

a) Nephew

b) Uncle

c) Father

d) Can’t be determined

e) Maternal Uncle

Q.25) How is the wife of son-in-law of only sister of brother of my wife is related to me?

a) Niece

b) Mother

c) Daughter

d) Daughter-in-law

e) Can’t be determined

D.26-30) Study the following information to answer the given questions:

A word and number arrangement machine when given an input line of words and numbers rearranges them following a particular rule. The following is an illustration of input and rearrangement.

Input: taking risks 52 35 customer confident 81 78 zymometer 41

Step I: 41 risks 52 35 customer confident 81 78 zymometer taking

Step II: 41 risks 52 taking customer confident 8178 zymometer 35

Step III: 41 risks 52 taking 35 confident 81 78 zymometer customer

Step IV: 41 risks 52 taking 35 customer 81 78 zymometer confident

Step V: 41 risks 52 taking 35 customer 81 confident zymometer 78

Step VI: 41 risks 52 taking 35 customer 81 confident 78 zymometer

And step VI is the last step of the above input. As per the rules followed in the above steps, find out the appropriate steps for the given input.

Input: facie account 21 31 incumbent members 54 elicit 28 17

Q.26) How many steps will be required to complete the given input?

a) Four

b) Six

c) Three

d) Five

e) None of these

Q.27) How many elements are there between ‘54’ and ‘incumbent’ in step VI?

a) None

b) One

c) Two

d) Three

e) Four

Q.28) Which of the following step represents the minimum gap between ‘elicit’ and ‘account’?

a) Step IV

b) Step III

c) Step II

d) Step VI

e) None of these

Q.29) Which word/number would be third to the left of fifth from the right end in step IV?

a) Elicit

b) 54

c) 31

d) 21

e) None of these

Q.30) Which of the following word/number would be third to the left of ‘28’, If ‘facie’ and ‘members’ are interchanged in Step III?

a) Facie

b) Members

c) Incumbent

d) 54

e) None of these

Q.31) In this question below is given a statement followed by two courses of action numbered I and II. You have to assume everything in the statement to be true and on the basis of the information given in the statement, decide which of the suggested courses of action logically follow(s) for pursuing.

Statement: The party is losing its image of being disciplined because of the fighting between thee moderate and hardliners.

Courses of action:

I. The two factions should adopt the middle path.

II. The party men should learn not to wash the dirty linen in public.

a) If only course of action I follows

b) If only course of action II follows

c) If either course of action I or II follows

d) If neither course of action I nor II follows

e) If both course of action I and II follows

Q.32) In this question given below consists of a statement, followed by two arguments numbered I and II. You have to decide which of the arguments is a ‘strong’ argument and which is a ‘weak’ argument.

Statement: Are the fabulous prices demanded by the art dealers for the original paintings of old masters justified?

Arguments:

I. Yes, those are unattainable antique pieces of art, hence, worth their price for the collectors of art.

II. No, modern painters can paint as well if not better than them and for much less price.

D.33-37) Study the following information carefully and answer the given question.

P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and H are eight friends sitting around a circular table and all of them like different sports viz., Football, Volleyball, Cricket, Snooker, Billiards, Karate, Chess and Basketball but not necessarily in the same order. There are many persons facing inside as there were facing outside of the circle.

R sits third to the left of Q who likes football. The person who likes karate and the person who likes Cricket are facing each other. The person who likes Billiards and the person who likes Chess are immediate neighbours of the person who likes Karate. Only one person sits between R and the person who likes Karate. The person who likes Snooker is not an immediate neighbour of R and the person who likes Football and he is facing inside. P and the person who likes cricket are immediate neighbours of each other. S sits second to the left of P. Immediate neighbours of one who likes Chess are facing same direction. T sits second to the left of S. Persons who are like Volleyball and Basketball are facing opposite direction. P likes Basketball. R and H are facing each other.

Q.33) Which of the following sports was liked by the person who sits to the immediate right of S?

a) Basketball

b) Volleyball

c) Snooker

d) Cricket

e) None of these

Q.34) If the person who sits to the immediate right of R likes Chess then which of the following person sits third to the right of the person who likes Billiards?

a) The person who sits between T and S

b) The person who likes Snooker

c) Immediate right of the person who likes Basketball

d) Either (a) or (c)

e) None of these

Q.35) Which of the following persons are facing inside of the table?

a) P, Q, V, U

b) R, H, V, P

c) R, H, P, V

d) R, H, U, V

e) None of these

Q.36) Which of the following persons are the immediate neighbours of the person who likes Football?

a) The person who likes Volleyball and Q

b) H and the person who like Volleyball

c) H and the person who like Cricket

d) R and the person who like Cricket

e) None of these

Q.37) If T is related to P in the same way S is related to Q then which of the following is related to U?

a) H

b) Q

c) R

d) P

e) V

D.38-39) In each of the following questions three/four statements are given and these statements are followed by five conclusions numbered (I) , (II) , (III) , (IV) and (V) . You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be variance from commonly known facts. Read the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements.

Q.38) Statements:

Some Red are Blue. All Red are Green. All Blue are Green. No Yellow is Green. No White is Red.

Conclusion:

I. Some Green are not White

II. No Red is Yellow

III. Some Green are White

IV. Some Blue are not Yellow

V. All White are Yellow

a) Conclusion I and IV follow

b) Conclusion I, II and V follow

c) Conclusion I, II and IV follow

d) Only II follows

e) Only III follows

Q.39) Statements:

All Acers are Lenovo. Some Acers are Dell. Some Lenovo are not Hp. Some Hp are not Sony.

Conclusion:

I. No Hp is Acer

II. Some Sony are Lenovo

III. Some Dells are not Sony

IV. Some Acers are Hp

V. All Dells are Sony

a) None follows

b) Only IV follows

c) Only II and III follow

d) Either I or IV and either III or V follow

e) Either III or IV follows

D.40-41) In each of questions given below has three Conclusions followed by some set of Statements. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be variance from commonly known facts. Then decide for which of the statements the given conclusions follow.

Q.40) Conclusions:

Some Watches are Book

Some Pens are Book is a possibility

Some Pencils are not Note

a) Statements: Some Pencils are Watch. All Watch are Book. All Pens are Watch. No Pencil is Note.

b) Statements: All Books are Watch. No Watch is Pencil. Some Pencils are Note. Some Notes are Pen.

c) Statements: All Pencils are Watch. Some Books are Pencil. All Notes are Pen. No Note is Book.

d) Statements: All Pencils are Watch. All Pencils are Pen. Some Pens are Note. Some Notes are Book.

e) None of these.

Q.41) Conclusions:

All B are being G is a possibility

Some K is B

Some G are not K

a) Statements: All G are B. All B are K. No K is O. Some O are R

b) Statements: All R are B. No B is O. All G are O. Some O are K.

c) Statements: All B are K. All K are O. Some B are R. Some G are R.

d) Some B are R. All R are K. Some G are O. No O is K.

e) None of these

Q.42) Conclusion:

Some circles are square

All trapeziums can be rectangle

All square are circle

a) Statements: All trapeziums are triangle. Some triangles are rectangle. All squares are rectangle. Some circles are rectangle.

b) Statements: All circles are trapezium. Some trapeziums are square. Some triangles are rectangle. No triangle is square.

c) Statements: Some squares are circle. No triangle is circle. No triangle is trapezium. Some trapeziums are rectangle.

d) Statements: All squares are rectangle. All rectangles are triangle. All rectangles are circle. Some circles are trapezium.

e) None of these

D.43-47) Each of the following questions below consists of a question and three statements numbered I, II and III given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read all the statements and give your answer:

Q.43) Seven persons M, N, O, P, Q, R and S are sitting around a circular table facing centre. Who sits to the immediate left of O?

Statements:

I. There are two person sits between N and O.

II. There are two persons sitting between N and R. O is sitting second to the right of S. N is not an immediate neighbour of S.

III.Q is third to the left of S. R is an immediate neighbour of O but not an immediate neighbour Q.

a) Only I and II are sufficient

b) Only II and III are sufficient

c) Only III is sufficient

d) Only II and either I or III are sufficient

e) Only I and III are sufficient

Q.44) Six friends P, Q, R, S, T and U are sitting in a straight line facing north. Who is sitting second from the right end?

Statements:

I. T sits third to the left of P. R is not an immediate neighbour of T.

II. There are only one person sits between Q and S. Q is not an extreme end of the line.

III. There are as many persons sit to the left of P and right of T are same.

a) Only I and II are sufficient

b) Only II and III are sufficient

c) Only III is sufficient

d) Only II and either I or III are sufficient

e) Only I and III are sufficient

Q.45) Eight friends A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting in a square table four of them sits at the corner of the table while others sits at the sides of the table and all of them facing center. Who is sitting second to the left of E?

Statements:

I. H sits opposite to A, who is not an immediate neighbour of B

II. There are two person sits between E and G. G is not an immediate neighbours B.

III. B is sits second to the right of E. G is immediate left of D.

a) Only I and II are sufficient

b) Only II and III are sufficient

c) Only III is sufficient

d) Only II and either I or III are sufficient

e) Only I and III are sufficient

Q.46) Six Persons U, V, W, X, Y and Z are living in six different floors. Ground floor is numbered one and the floor above is numbered two and so on. In which floor V lives?

Statements:

I. Z lives on the floor which is two floors above Y. There are two floors between X and V.

II. U lives in the even numbered floor but not below 3rd floor.

III. Z lives immediately below the floor U lives. X does not live in the odd numbered floor.

a) Only I and II sufficient

b) Only II and III sufficient

c) Only III sufficient

d) All I, II and III together sufficient

e) All I, II and III together not sufficient

Q.47) How many persons are standing in the row, if all of them facing same directions?

Statements:

I. A stands 15th from the left end and B stands 13th from the right end.

II. D is stand exactly between A and B

III. Only five persons sit between A and B. D sits to the right of A.

a) Only I and II are sufficient

b) Only II and III are sufficient

c) Only III is sufficient

d) All I, II and III together sufficient

e) All I, II and III together not sufficient

D.48-49) In each of the question below is given a statement followed by two assumptions numbered I and II. You have to consider the statement and the following assumptions and decide which of the assumptions is implicit in the statement.

a) If only assumption I is implicit

b) If only assumption II is implicit

c) If either I or II is implicit

d) If neither I nor II is implicit

e) If both I and II are implicit

Q.48) Statement: “Best way to solve this problem of workers’ dissatisfaction is to offer them cash rewards. If this type of incentive can solve problem in CIDCO company then why not here”-A personnel manager tells the chairman of a company.

Assumptions:

I. The reason for workers’ dissatisfaction in both the companies was similar.

II. Monetary incentives have universal appeal.

Q.49) Statement: Government aided schools should have uniformity in charging various fees.

Assumptions:

I. The Government’s subsidy comes from the money collected by way of taxes from people.

II. The Government, while giving subsidy, may have stipulated certain uniform conditions regarding fees.

Q.50) In this question below is given a statement followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to assume everything in the statement to be true, then consider the two conclusions together and decide which of them logically follows from the information given in the statement.

Statement: The nation ‘X’ faced the increased international opposition due to its decision of performing eight nuclear explosions.

Conclusions:

I. The citizens of the nation have favoured the decision.

II. Some powerful nations don’t want that others may become powerful.

a) If only conclusion I follows

b) If only conclusion II follows

c) If either I or II follows

d) If neither I nor II follows

e) If both conclusions I and II are follow

D.51-55) Study the following information carefully and answer the given question:

Seven persons Zaada, Zabel, Zabella, Zabie, Zadie, Zady and Zeera are attending interview in different Companies viz. Bi-world, Dell, Worldwide, Jio, Nokia, Accenture and Bankers Daily but not necessarily in the same order. They have interview on different days of the week starting from Monday. Also they like different shirts (i.e.) Lewis, Peter England, Polo, Otto, Sports, Allen Solly and X-men but not necessarily in the same order.

Zabel, who likes Allen Solly, attends the interview on the fourth day of the week but neither in Bi-world nor in Bankers Daily. Two persons have interview between the days on which Zabel and Zady attend the interview and Zady is not attending the interview on the first day of the week. There is only one person attending the interview between Zaada and Zabella. But Zabella does not have interview on either 1st or 3rd day of the week. Zabella likes Peter England and attends the interview in Bi-world. Zaada does not like either Sports or Lewis or Otto Shirt. The one who attends the interview in Worldwide is on the last day of the week and he likes Polo shirt. Zabie does not attend the interview on the day either immediately before or immediately after the day on which Zaada attends. Zeera attends the interview after Zabella and he likes Lewis. Zadie does not like Sports shirt but attends the interview in Accenture. Zaada does not attend the interview in either Nokia or Jio. The one who attends the interview in Dell attends the interview immediately after the day of the one who attends the interview in Bi world.

Q.51) Which of the following combinations is definitely false?

a) Zabella – Peter England – Bi-world

b) Zaada – X-men –Bankers Daily

c) Zadie – Otto –Accenture

d) Zady – Peter England – Bi-world

e) None of these

Q.52) Who among the following attends on the 5th day of the week?

a) The person who likes X-men shirt

b) The person who attend World wide

c) The person who attend Bi-world

d) The person who likes Otto shirt

e) None of these

Q.53) Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their arrangements. Which one does not belong to the group?

a) Zabie – The person who likes X-men Shirt

b) Zabel – The person who likes Lewis

c) Zadaa- The person who likes Peter England

d) Zabella – The person who likes Allen Solly

e) Zadie – The person who likes Allen Solly

Q.54) If ‘Zabel’ is related to ‘Peter England’ and ‘Zeera’ is related to ‘Polo’ then ‘Zaada’ is related to which of the following?

a) Sports

b) Allen Solly

c) Otto

d) X-men

e) None of these

Q.55) Which one of the following attends the interview in Nokia Company?

a) The person who attend on fourth day of the week

b) The person who attend just before Zadie

c) The person who attend just after zadie

d) Can’t be determined

e) None of these

D.56-60) In the following questions, #, @, &, % and * are used with the following meanings as illustrated below. Study the following information carefully and answer the given question.

‘X&Y’ means ‘X is not smaller than Y’

‘X%Y’ means ‘ X is neither smaller than nor equal to Y’

‘X*Y’ means ‘X is neither greater than nor equal to Y’

‘X#Y’ means ‘X is not greater than Y’

‘X@Y’ means ‘X is neither greater than nor smaller than Y’

Q.56) Statements:

A@J, J #B, B%H, H&G

Conclusions:

I. G*B

II. B&A

III. G&H

IV.J@G

a) I and II are true

b) I, II and III are true

c) II, III and IV are true

d) All are true

e) None of these

Q.57) Statements:

T# A, A@R, R&M,M%K

Conclusions:

I. R%T

II. M#A

III. K*A

IV. R@T

a) Either I or III are true

b) Either I or IV and III are true

c) Either I or IV and II & III are true

d) Either I or III and IV are true

e) Either II or IV and I and III are true

Q.58) Statements:

R*A, A%B, B@V, V#M

Conclusions:

I. V*R

II. M%B

III. R*B

IV. B@M

a) None is true

b) Either II or IV are true

c) Only IV is true

d) Either II or III are true

e) Only II is true

Q.59) Statements:

Y*T, A#Y, F%Z, Z&A

Conclusions:

I. F%A

II. T%A

III. Z%Y

IV. T%Z

a) Either I or II are true

b) Only II are true

c) Only II and III are true

d) Only I and II are true

e) None is true

Q.60) Statements:

F@K, C%F, A&U, U*C

Conclusions:

I. K*U

II. A%C

III. C% K

IV. F*U

a) None is true

b) Only IV is true

c) Only I is true

d) Only II is true

e) Only III is true

D.61-65) The salary breakup offered by 10 companies for Assistant manager post in the year 2010 are given in the table below. Some data is missing from the table. Company Bonus and performance Bonus are Paid equally on monthly basis as part of salary. Find out the missing data and answer the questions.

Company TA (Per month in Rs) HRA (Per month in Rs) Basic pay (Per month in Rs) Company Bonus (Per year in Rs) Performance Bonus (Per Year in Rs) Total salary (including both the bonus ) (Per month in Rs)
TCS 4180 1350 17795   6840  
RACE 5280   19895 30000   29785
HDFC Bank 5200 480   36000   28650
ITC   1215 19175 34800 2520  
INFOSYS 5250 1250 21475 42000 1800 31625
SUN PHARMA 4275   17425   4860 25625
ONGC 4725 1970   22800 5760 27725
Total   9105 134180 242400 28920 200555

Q.61) what is the difference between the annual basic pay offered to assistant manager in HDFC bank and the annual HRA offered to assistant manager in RACE?

a) 226450

b) 216540

c) 236350

d) 215340

e) None of these

Q.62) If company Bonus and performance bonus are not considered in total salary calculation, which company offers the highest total monthly salary to assistant manager?

a) ITC

b) RACE

c) INFOSYS

d) ONGC

e) TCS

Q.63) what is the monthly salary offered to assistant manager in company ITC (in Rs) ?

a) 28765

b) 27675

c) 26785

d) 29250

e) Cannot be determined

Q.64) The annual HRA offered to assistant manager in company SUN PHARMA is what percentage of total monthly salary offered to assistant manager in company TCS?

a) 46.28%

b) 48.18%

c) 42.28%

d) 43.28%

e) 45.55%

Q.65) what is the ratio between the monthly Basic pay offered to assistant manager in ONGC company and the annual performance bonus offered to assistant manager in RACE?

a) 1847: 478

b) 1865: 468

c) 4: 1

d) 5: 3

e) 1877: 498

Q.66) A person bought some oranges worth Rs.72 from each of the five markets at Rs.1, Rs.1.5, Rs.1.80, Rs.2 and Rs.2.25 per orange, respectively. What is the average price of an orange?

a) Rs.1.42

b) Rs.1.65

c) Rs.1.77

d) Rs.1.58

e) Rs.1.44

Q.67) Assuming that profit of a shopkeeper in a particular commodity is a linear expression of transportation charge (t) and the quantity of commodity (q) . He earns a profit of Rs 40000 by selling 40 units incurring transport charge of Rs.800. He also earns a profit of Rs.48000 by selling 50 units incurring transport charge of Rs.1200. what is the linear expression in t and q?

a) 1200q-5t

b) 2400q-6t

c) 1200q-10t

d) 1800q-12t

e) 2400q-12t

Q.68) If A works alone, he would take 4 days more to complete the job than if both A and B worked together. If B worked alone, he would take 16 days more to complete the job than if A and B work together. How many days would they take to complete the work if both of them worked together?

a) 10 days

b) 12 days

c) 6 days 

d) 8 days

e) None of these

Q.69) A, B and C can do a piece of work in 22 days, 40 days and 110 days respectively, working alone. How soon can the work be done if A is assisted by B and C on alternate days?

a) 18 days

b) 12 days

c) 24 days

d) 36 days

e) 16 days

Q.70) Vijay invested some amount in a bank at a simple interest and got Rs.2830 after 4 years. Had he withdrawn the same money from the bank after 6 years then he would have got Rs.3180. Find out rate of interest offered by the bank and the money invested by Vijay respectively (Approximately) .

a) 8.5%, 2040

b) 9%, 1980

c) 7.5%, 1925

d) 8.2%, 2130

e) None of these.

D.71-75) Refer the following information and bar graph to answer the questions.

Z1, Z2, Z3, Z4, Z5 and Z6 are the only six products sold by a dealer. Pie chart shows the product wise distribution of the total profit earned by him. For example, 12% of the total profit earned by the dealer is earned from product Z1.

Pie chart 2 indicates the product wise share of the total sales turnover. For example, 12% of the total sales turnover of the dealer is from the sales of product Z1.

Profit is expressed as a percentage of the sales turnover.


Q.71) If the profit percentage on sale of product Z2 is 27%, then what is the overall profit percentage of the dealer on selling all the products?

a) 23.5%

b) 33%

c) 27%

d) 22.5%

e) None of these

Q.72) For which product was the profit percentage as a percentage of its sales the lowest?

a) Z5

b) Z4

c) Z3

d) Z2

e) Z1

Q.73) If the overall profit percentage of the dealer is 40%, then what is the profit percentage on sale of product Z4?

a) 37.8%

b) 44.4%

c) 47.65%

d) 33.33%

e) 45.67%

Q.74) For how many of the six products is the profit percentage more than the overall profit percentage?

a) 1

b) 2

c) 3

d) 4

e) None of these

Q.75) If the sales turnover of Z2 is Rs.45000 and the profit percentage of Z5 is 50%, what is the profit percentage of Z4?

a) 36.67%

b) 32.33%

c) 33.33%

d) 37.04%

e) 39.07%

Q.76) A and B are partners in a business. A contributes 3/4th of the total capital for 18 months and B received 1/3 of the profit. How long B’s money Was used?

a) 21 months

b) 24 months

c) 27 months

d) 30 months

e) 12 months

Q.77) The ratio of 1st and 2nd class trains fares between two stations is 5: 3 and that of the number of passengers travelling between these stations by 1st and 2nd classes is 3: 70. If on a particular day, Rs.3750 be collected from the passengers travelling between these stations, then find the amount collected from 2nd class passengers.

a) Rs.2500

b) Rs.2750

c) Rs.3250

d) Rs.3500

e) Rs.2250

Q.78) A lent an amount of Rs.19500 to his friends B, C, D in the ratio 5:3:7 with the rate of interest 8%, 6% and 5% respectively. Find the total interest received by A at the end of 2 years

a) 2328

b) 2438

c) 2418

d) 2346

e) 2267

Q.79) A train leaves Agra at 7.00 a m and reaches Delhi at 12 a m. Another train leaves Delhi at 9 a.m and reaches Agra at 1.30 a m. At what approximate time do the two trains cross each other?

a) 10 a m

b) 10.45 a m

c) 10.25 a m

d) 11 a m

e) 11.20 a m

Q.80) Train x crosses a pole in 45 seconds and train y crosses the pole in 1 minute 30 seconds. Length of train x is half the length of train y. What is the ratio between the speeds of x and y, respectively?

a) 2: 1

b) 1: 1

c) 3: 2

d) Cannot be determined

e) None the these

D.81-85) Study the following information carefully and answer the following questions.

An IT company having 900 employees sent all its employees for training in one or more programming languages out of X, Y and Z. The male and female employees are in the ratio of 5: 4. 10% of the females take training only in Y. 16% of the males take training only in X which is equal to the number of females taking training in only in Z and also it equal to the number of females taking training in only X and Z together. 6% of the total employees take training in all the three together, of which two-thirds are females. 10% of the total employees take training in only X and Y together, which is five times the number of males taking training in only Y and Z together. 10% of the males take training in only X and Y together. The number of females taking training only in X is 25% of the number of males taking training only in X. 20% of the total number of employees take training only in Y. Number of males taking in only X and Z together is 20% of the total number of males.

Q.81) How many employees take training in at least 2 languages?

a) 3762

b) 433

c) 426

d) 446

e) 476

Q.82) The number of females taking in X is what percentage of the number of males taking training in y?

a) 83.84%

b) 69.89%

c) 77.88%

d) 66.67%

e) 73.33%

Q.83) What percent of the employees take only Z?

a) 16.67%

b) 19.33%

c) 21.21%

d) 24.24%

e) 23.33%

Q.84) What percentage of females take training in only X and Y together?

a) 12%

b) 15%

c) 18%

d) 20%

e) 10%

Q.85) What percentage of males take training in only Y and Z?

a) 4.2%

b) 3.33%

c) 3.6%

d) 4.5%

e) 6.67%

Q.86) The ratio of speeds of a motorboat to that of the current of water is 42: 7. The motorboat goes along with the current in 5 hours 50 minutes. Find the time to come back for the motorboat?

a) 7 hours 30 minutes

b) 8 hours

c) 8 hours 10 minutes

d) 9 hours

e) 8 hours 3o minutes

Q.87) In how many ways, can 25 persons be seated around two round tables with seating capacities of 12 and 13 persons?

a)

b)

c)

d)

e)

Q.88) Find the area of the iron sheet required to prepare a cone with the height of 12 cm with diameter of the base 10 cm.(Approximately)

a) 278 square cm

b) 283 square cm

c) 298 square cm

d) 290 square cm

e) 278 square cm

Q.89) Seven boys and 6girls stand in queue for an interview. The probability that they stand in alternate position is?

a) 1/1444

b) 1/1692

c) 1/1716

d) 1/2162

e) 1/1849

Q.90) The HCF and LCM of two numbers are 23 and 10051, respectively. If one of the numbers lies between 400 and 500, then find the two numbers?

a) 533, 437

b) 529, 437

c) 576, 437

d) 557, 437

e) Cannot be determined

D.91-100) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words/phrases are given in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.

Concerns over academic dishonesty and plagiarism have risen in the digital age. Violation of academic ethics begins in school when holiday homework is ‘outsourced’ for a price. Such behaviour, in academic parlance, is defined as passing off another’s work as one’s own — in short, plagiarism. The consent of parents in such practices lends an air of acceptability to the entire exercise and impressionable, young minds unfortunately process this behaviour as harmless, thereby continuing it in tests conducted in colleges and universities too. It is important to understand the reasons behind such behaviour and formulate remedial measures. The proximate reasons for cheating in higher education are complicated. Young adults, overwhelmed by the unfamiliar experience of living independently in a new city, are often unable to devote time to study. Since university scores form the basis of short-listing for placements and internships, students use cheating as a quick fix in this rat race. The deeper reasons behind these proximate ones can be identified as the fear of mediocre performance in an exam and an absence of any fear of repercussions if caught. Nebulous understanding of what constitutes academic ethics and the fact that violations are often ‘let off’ with minor penalties add to the problem. While no single solution can be the ‘silver bullet’ to this multidimensional menace, a combination of systemic changes (reforming the education system and inculcating values) and short-term steps (improving the conduct of examinations) may help in building a culture of academic integrity. Counselling should be provided to students and parents to encourage admissions based on interest and aptitude. In addition, curriculum design should be aligned with skill building. It should encourage critical thinking among students. Quality teaching should be incentivised and conversely, a ‘no-tolerance policy’ towards non-performance should be adopted. Overhauling the evaluation system by focussing more on application of knowledge and introducing ‘non-traditional’ assessment techniques, such as verbal tests and critical paper reviews, could contribute in reducing the need for and incidence of cheating. It is also crucial to make students realise the gravity of violations of academic integrity. Universities across the world give enormous importance to academic ethics. In India, however, even a reputed institution such as Delhi University has no mention of ethics in either its handbook or website. This lack of sensitivity may be addressed by discussing academic ethics in college orientation programmes, along with making the students sign an ‘honour code’ statement wherein they submit a written declaration that they will refrain from such practices. Similar steps have been useful in reducing the incidence of ragging in colleges in India.

Q.91) Which of the following is true according to the passage?

a) According to a report, India will experience a paradox of nearly 90 million people joining the workforce but most of them will lack required skills and the mindset for productive employment.

b) The important aspect of education system in India is its low quality.

c) Ethics is an important subject in the universities in India.

d) Quality teaching is prevalent only in the top universities in India.

e) All the above are false.

Q.92) What does the author mean by ‘plagiarism’ in the passage?

a) The practice of protecting one’s own work by law.

b) The practice of taking someone else’s work and pass them as their own work.

c) The practice of using quotations without citing the source.

d) The practice of mentioning the source wrong.

e) To rely on some other’s work and failing to give original thought into the text.

Q.93) What is the author’s suggestions to reduce the cheating incidences in the passage?

I. To counsel the students and their parents about the ill-effects of cheating.

II. The students should be made to learn about the punishments granted by the institution for getting involved in cheating.

III. To change the evaluation system by bringing in non-technical assessments and thereby reducing the cheating incidences.

a) Only I

b) Only II

c) Only III

d) Both I and II

e) Both I and III.

Q.94) What does the phrase ‘honour code’ mean as mentioned in the passage?

a) It is a written statement issued by the institution to guarantee that it will be an acting guardian to the student.

b) It is a written statement by a student to the institution that the concerned student will not involve in any cheating activities.

c) It is a written statement issued by the institution to know about the facilities in it.

d) It is a written statement by a student to the institution that the concerned student knows the rules and regulations of the institution.

e) None of the above.

Q.95) What is the suitable title for the passage?

a) Comparison of New and Old Education system.

b) Education System in brief.

c) Challenges in Controlling Ragging.

d) Mandatory Reforms in Education.

e) All the above titles are suitable to the passage.

Q.96) What are the steps suggested by author in reducing the ragging incidents in colleges in India?

a) To give quality based education to the students and thereby avoiding such incidents.

b) To counsel students by conducting orientation programmes on ragging.

c) To adopt an tough Anti-ragging policy in universities in India.

d) All the above.

e) None of the above.

Q.97) What is the synonym of the word ‘proximate’ as mentioned in the passage?

a) Eventual

b) Other

c) Close

d) Serious

e) Vital

Q.98) What is the antonym of the word ‘repercussions’ as mentioned in the passage?

a) Consequences

b) Outcomes

c) Effects

d) Causes

e) Weakness

Q.99) What is the synonym of the word ‘parlance’ as mentioned in the passage?

a) style

b) Revive

c) sentence

d) standard

e) listening

Q.100) What is the antonym of the word ‘mediocre’ as mentioned in the passage?

a) exceptional

b) indifferent

c) common

d) usual

e) fixed

D.101-105) A sentence is shown in four parts marked as (a) , (b) , (c) and (d) in each question. The part which is grammatically wrong is to be marked as the answer. If every part in the sentence is grammatically correct then, ‘No error’ (e) should be chosen as the answer.

Q.101) The language, especially the usage of words such as durjan, is striking similar to letters that Dabholkar and Pansare used to receive prior to their murders,” Mr. Khetan told The Hindu.

a) The language, especially the usage of words

b) such as durjan, is striking similar to

c) letters that Dabholkar and Pansare used to receive

d) prior to their murders,” Mr. Khetan told The Hindu.

e) No error.

Q.102) Having gauged the opponent, Bajrang was more purposing in the second session as he quickly picked up three points to be ahead after a minute and a half.

a) Having gauged the opponent,

b) Bajrang was more purposing in the second

c) session as he quickly picked up three points to be

d) ahead after a minute and a half.

e) No error.

Q.103) For more than 400 years, the plays of William Shakespeare have been read, performed and adapted across the world.

a) For more than 400 years,

b) the plays of William Shakespeare have

c) been read, performed and

d) adapted across the world.

e) No error.

Q.104) Along with his son, Vappa brings his wife and one-year-old daughter to this town, the name of which were not told, though we may assume that it is Varkala where Anees Salim grow up.

a) Along with his son, Vappa brings his

b) wife and one-year-old daughter to this town,

c) the name of which were not told, though

d) we may assume that it is Varkala where Anees Salim grow up.

e) No error.

Q.105) The NDA appears to have strengthened the prospects of getting its choice of candidate for the presidential polls elected, with the YSR and the TRS offers support.

a) The NDA appears to have strengthened

b) the prospects of getting its choice of

c) candidate for the presidential polls elected,

d) with the YSR and the TRS offers support.

e) No error.

D.106-110) : Rearrange the following seven sentences marked as (A) , (B) , (C) , (D) , (E) , (F) and (G) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph and then answer the questions given below.

A) The Indian Institutes of Technology, too, will have these modules, but the duration may be just a couple of months.

B) “The module will work on students’ communication skills, help them come to terms with failures in life, learn situational decision making and negotiate dilemmas in life,” a senior official told The Hindu.

C) Starting from the coming academic year, technical colleges across India will be required to offer semester-long modules to help fresher adjust to college life and beat stress.

D) Colleges may also take help from NGOs or contact psychologists for the courses.

E) The All-India Council for Technical Education (AICTE) wants all colleges affiliated to it — around 10,000 — to make these modules a necessary part of their course structure, without awarding any grades for them.

F) Moral and ethical values will also be part of the module, he added.

G) The blueprint for the courses has been put in place by a professor at IITBHU, who was earlier with IIT-Hyderabad, where he developed the module.

Q.106) Which of the following would be the FIFTH sentence after rearrangement?

a) G

b) B

c) F

d) E

e) C

Q.107) Which of the following would be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement?

a) A

b) D

c) E

d) B

e) C

Q.108) Which of the following would be the LAST (SEVENTH) sentence after rearrangement?

a) D

b) F

c) E

d) G

e) B

Q.109) Which of the following would be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement?

a) C

b) E

c) G

d) D

e) A

Q.110) Which of the following would be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement?

a) C

b) A

c) B

d) F

e) E

D.111-120) : In the following passage, one or two words have been left out in some of the sentences shown by blank spaces, each of which is indicated by a series of numbers. Find the suitable word from the given options marked as (a) , (b) , (c) , (d) and (e) against each number and fill up the numbered blanks with the appropriate option to make the paragraph meaningfully complete.

The Centre has empowered the Reserve Bank of India to get banks to take tougher steps, including insolvency and bankruptcy proceedings against defaulters, to ___ (111) ___ the growing volume of bad loans on their books. An ordinance to amend the Banking Regulation Act of 1949 has been issued to ___ (112) ___ doubts whether the existing provisions ____ (113) _____ the RBI to ___ (114) ___ banks to deal with specific stressed assets. The RBI has also been ___ (115) ____ with the power to form oversight committees ___ (116) ___it deems fit. Currently such committees exist only for loans brought into a scheme for sustainable structuring of stressed assets, also known as S4A. Now the RBI can bring in such panels to monitor the alphabet soup of other mechanisms for tackling non-performing assets (NPAs) such as SDR (strategic debt restructuring) through the JLFs, or joint lenders’ forums. The hope is that this will let bankers take ___ (117) ___calls on loan accounts that have turned __ (118) ___, as an independent oversight committee’s approval could keep investigative agencies off their backs. Bankers may not always have the ___ (119) ___ expertise to monetise or leverage assets underlying bad loans in the best possible way. The success of this latest salvo against bad loans will depend on the fine print on how the ultimate decision — whether to take a ___ (120) ___ on a loan and restructure it or invoke bankruptcy clauses — is arrived at.

Q.111)

a) direct

b) revive

c) address

d) claim

e) compensate

Q.112)

a) clarify

b) perturb

c) quell

d) clear

e) reduce

Q.113)

a) denied

b) sanctioned

c) authorized

d) allowed

e) suppressed

Q.114)

a) command

b) direct

c) charge

d) instruct

e) request

Q.115)

a) supported

b) provided

c) authority

d) granted

e) vested

Q.116)

a) whenever

b) whither

c) anywhere

d) whereabouts

e) wherever

Q.117)

a) appropriate

b) decisive

c) apt

d) mandate

e) final

Q.118)

a) stressed

b) bad

c) standard

d) dormant

e) inactive

Q.119)

a) sectoral

b) distinct

c) much

d) technical

e) high level

Q.120)

a) action

b) litigation

c) proceedings

d) haircut

e) impeachment

Q.121) First Humsafar Express between _____ and _____ was flagged off by Railway Minister Suresh Prabhu, aims to providing a luxurious travelling experience to the common man at Udvada town in Valsad district.

a) Saphale & Umiroli

b) Kandivali & Mumbai

c) Borivali & Chennai

d) Ahmedabad & Chennai

e) Bandra & Mumbai

Q.122) Which of the following city is the India’s cleanest city, according to a “Swachh Survekshan 2017” list of 25 Indian cities announced by Union Minister Venkaiah Naidu?

a) Mysuru, Karnataka

b) Vishakhapatnam, Andhra Pradesh

c) Bhopal, Madhya Pradesh

d) Surat, Gujarat

e) Indore, Madhya Pradesh

Q.123) Who is the chairman of Peace Accord Review Committee which has been constituted by Mizoram Governor Lt. General Nirbhay Sharma?

a) R. Lalzirliana

b) Lal Thanhawla

c) Larinmawia Ralte

d) R. Romawia

e) P.C. Lalthanliana

Q.124) The headquarter of Credit Rating Information Services of India Limited (CRISIL) is located in?

a) Bangalore

b) New Delhi

c) Hyderabad

d) Kolkata

e) Mumbai

Q.125) ‘Sagarmatha Friendship-2017’ is a military exercise between which two countries?

a) Nepal and Sri Lanka

b) China and Nepal

c) China and Pakistan

d) Pakistan and Nepal

e) Nepal and Myanmar

Q.126) Which of the following Chief Minister has been selected for the ‘Transformative Chief Minister Award’ in recognition for his role in advancing the US-India partnership at the state level?

a) Chandrababu Naidu

b) Chandrasekhar Rao

c) Naveen Patnaik

d) Pawan kumar Chamling

e) Pema Khandu

Q.127) Pro European centrist leader Emmanuel Macron has been elected as President of which country?

a) Poland

b) Netherlands

c) Italy

d) Germany

e) France

Q.128) Which of the following entity got licence from RBI to become payment bank of India. It will begin its banking operations from May 23, 2017?

a) Paytm

b) PhonePe

c) PayPal

d) Vodafone

e) Both b and c

Q.129) World Intellectual Property Day is observed on April 26th. What is the theme of 2017?

a) Digital Creativity: Culture Reimagined

b) Get Up, Stand Up. For Music

c) Creativity – The Next Generation

d) Innovation – Improving Lives

e) Visionary Innovators

Q.130) The Money market is regulated by ______.

a) RBI

b) SEBI

c) PFRDA

d) GOI

e) IRDA

Q.131) The Election Commission of India has launched the National Contact Centre and announced toll free number to educate the voters. What is the toll free number?

a) 1800118870

b) 1800221190

c) 1800111950

d) 1900111200

e) 1900111850

Q.132) Which of the following two Indian warships have visited Egypt as part of Indian Navy’s overseas deployment to the Mediterranean Sea and the west coast of Africa?

a) INS Vishal and INS Mumbai

b) INS Mumbai and INS Vikrant

c) INS Kochi and INS Vikramaditya

d) INS Mumbai and INS Aditya

e) INS Chennai and INS Vikramaditya

Q.133) How much amount had been estimated by the India rating and research agency that corporate and SME loan were recognised as stressed loans in FY19?

a) 1 lakh crore

b) 100 crore

c) 1.7 lakh crore

d) 2.6 lakh crore

e) 770 crore

Q.134) “Lusaka” is the capital of which country?

a) Gambia

b) Zambia

c) Romania

d) Nigeria

e) Mongolia

Q.135) As per the data released by Asian Development Bank (ADB) , the Indian economy will grow ____ per cent in 2017-18 fiscal year.

a) 7.0%

b) 7.2%

c) 7.6%

d) 7.5%

e) 7.4%

Q.136) Which of the following person was awarded with “The Fellowship Award” at the Asian Awards in London?

a) M S Dhoni

b) Sachin Tendulkar

c) Aishwarya Rai

d) Shahrukh Khan

e) Amitabh Bachchan

Q.137) The First anti-tobacco film festival held at ______.

a) New Delhi

b) Goa

c) Maharashtra

d) Kerala

e) Karnataka

Q.138) US approved the sale of 160 missiles worth $2billion to which of the following country?

a) Qatar

b) Pakistan

c) UAE

d) China

e) Israel

Q.139) Long-term debt based financial instruments last for——————

a) More than a year

b) More than two years

c) More than three years

d) Less than one year

e) None of these

Q.140) Lal Bahadur Shastri Stadium is located in which state?

a) Mumbai, Maharashtra

b) Ahmedabad, Gujarat

c) Visakhapatnam, Andhra Pradesh

d) Amritsar, Punjab

e) Hyderabad, Telangana

Q.141) The full form of WPI is

a) Wholesale Price Index

b) Wholesale Priority Index

c) Whole Price Index

d) Wholesale Priority Investment

e) None of these

Q.142) Which is the first state to launch Logo for vehicles driven by Person with hearing impairment?

a) Andhra Pradesh

b) Telangana

c) Meghalaya

d) Tripura

e) Uttarakhand

Q.143) The scientists have developed the first 3D printed four legged robot that can climb and walk on different surfaces. The Scientists are belongs to which of the following University?

a) Cambridge University

b) University of California

c) University of Melbourne

d) Harvard University

e) University of oxford

Q.144) Which country will host the both Summer Olympics and Paralympics games 2020?

a) Tokyo, Japan

b) Beijing, China

c) Pyongyang, South Korea

d) Abu Dhabi, United Arab Emirates

e) Vienna, Austria

Q.145) Which of the following State, Tops the list in Digital Transaction after Demonetisation Drive, clocking 5900 e-transactions per 1000 people?

a) Tamil Nadu

b) Madhya Pradesh

c) Telangana

d) Andhra Pradesh

e) Kerala

Q.146) International Nurses Day is observed on?

a) May 11

b) April 11

c) May 12

d) April 12

e) June 11

Q.147) Which of the following military exercises conducted by Jordan and the United States, the seventh largest and most complex exercises so far?

a) Eagle Line

b) Ekuverin

c) Yudh Abhyas

d) Nomadic Elephant

e) Eager Lion

Q.148) Which of the following Chief Minister has unveiled the ‘Olly the turtle’ logo and mascot of the Asian athletics championship to spread awareness about the endangered Olive Ridley turtle?

a) Nitish Kumar

b) Naveen Patnaik

c) Pema Khandu

d) Sarbananda Sonowal

e) Chandrababu Naidu

Q.149) The book ‘Numbers Do Lie’ written by which former Indian cricketer?

a) Kapil Dev

b) Sunil Gavaskar

c) Anil Kumble

d) Aakash Chopra

e) Ravi Shastri

Q.150) The 13th edition of International Permaculture meet to be held in which city from November 27 to December 2, 2017 with the theme ‘Towards Healthy Societies’.

a) Jaipur

b) New Delhi

c) Hyderabad

d) Bangalore

e) Mumbai

Q.151) Short-term debt based financial instruments last for ————-year less.

a) one

b) two

c) three

d) four

e) None of these

Q.152) “Bhagoria Haat festival” is celebrated in which state?

a) Jammu & Kashmir

b) Uttar Pradesh

c) Madhya Pradesh

d) Maharashtra

e) Gujarat

Q.153) Which of the following entity organised the first “Samavesh” meeting in New Delhi?

a) NITI AYOG

b) Bank Board Bureau

c) ISRO

d) SEBI

e) RBI

Q.154) Prime Minister Narendra Modi announced that direct flight between Colombo and Varanasi. Which of the following Airlines provide the service between the cities?

a) Air India

b) Jet Airway

c) IndiGo

d) GoAir

e) SpiceJet

Q.155) The headquartes for National Housing bank is situated in?

a) New Delhi

b) Mumbai

c) Kolkatta

d) Chennai

e) None of these

Q.156) In which of the following place was 31st APEC Summit scheduled to be held in 2019?

a) Thailand

b) Peru

c) New Zealand

d) Chile

e) Papua New Guinea

Q.157) Who among the following is chairman of SEBI?

a) Ajay tyagi

b) uriji patel

c) Ajay prakash

d) ajmal

e) None of these

Q.158) Who has been appointed as the new chairman of Public Accounts Committee of parliament?

a) Kiran Kumar

b) K V Thomas

c) Mallikarjun Kharge

d) Vinod Rai

e) Murli Manohar Joshi

Q.159) The FDI limit for e-commerce under government route is?

a) 44%

b) 55%

c) 40%

d) 100%

e) None of these

Q.160) What is the estimated project cost of India longest bridge “The Dhola-Sadiya” inaugurated by PM Narendra Modi?

a) 400 crore

b) 550 crore

c) 760 crore

d) 950 crore

e) 1000 crore

Q.161) “Som” is the currency of which country?

a) Uzbekistan

b) Turkmenistan

c) Kazakhstan

d) Tajikistan

e) Afghanistan

Q.162) Who has been appointed as the first women president of industry body Confederation of Indian Industry?

a) Hemana Karthika

b) Karthika Kamayakra

c) Shobana Kamineni

d) Shobana Kamalini

e) Karthika Kumar

Q.163) How much amount of loan has been sanctioned by the Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank (AIIB) to strengthen the power transmission and distribution system in Andhra Pradesh?

a) USD 175 million

b) USD 170 million

c) USD 150 million

d) USD 110 million

e) USD 160 million

Q.164) Cricket legend Sachin Tendulkar welcomed an Indian naval frigate ______ as it docked on the river Thames in London to mark UK India Year of Culture 2017?

a) INS Trishul

b) INS Tarkash

c) INS Trikand

d) INS Tabar

e) INS Talwar

Q.165) NOSTRO account is?

a) Foreign exchange

b) foreign currency

c) Foreign account

d) NRI account

e) None of these

Q.166) Recently, Home Minister Rajnath singh announced a new strategy against the Maoists. Name of the Strategy is ______.

a) SAMEDHAN

b) SAMODHAN

c) SAMADHAN

d) SAMADHEN

e) SAMACHEN

Q.167) Recently, the Cabinet Committee of India approved to build ______ atomic reactors. Each have capacity of 700MW of electricity?

a) 5

b) 6

c) 9

d) 10

e) 13

Q.168) Obra Thermal Power Plant is located in which state?

a) West Bengal

b) Jharkhand

c) Uttar Pradesh

d) Madhya Pradesh

e) Odisha

Q.169) Dronacharya award winning coach Captain Chand Roop passed away in Delhi. He was a coacher of which game?

a) Badminton

b) Tennis

c) Boxing

d) Swimming

e) Wrestler

Q.170) What is the name of operation started by BSF (Border Security Force) in Rajasthan recently?

a) Garam Hawa

b) Raja Sakthi

c) Green Hunt

d) Sard Hawa

e) White hunt

Q.171) Which country decided to rollback the Zika Public Health Emergency?

a) Zimbabwe

b) Kenya

c) Australia

d) Brazil

e) Spain

Q.172) How much amount has been allocated for DBT (Direct Benefit transfer) Scheme in 2017-18 by the government?

a) 500 crore

b) 1 lakh crore

c) 1000 crore

d) 2 lakh crore

e) 10000 crore

Q.173) The Headquarter of HDFC Bank is located in?

a) Kolkata

b) Mumbai

c) Hyderabad

d) Bangalore

e) Chennai

Q.174) Which of the following state to introduce a new fishing method called as “cage culture”?

a) Kerala

b) Tamil Nadu

c) West Bengal

d) Karnataka

e) Andhra Pradesh

Q.175) Which among the following is the risk in risk management in banking?

a) Liquidity risk

b) Market risk

c) credit or Default Risk

d) operational risk

e) All the above

Q.176) IRCTC is recently offered a home delivery of rail tickets. It introduces which of the following service to book tickets and pay at the time of delivery?

a) Pay-off-delivery

b) Pay-on-delivery

c) Home-on-delivery

d) Home-off-delivery

e) None of these

Q.177) A derivative is an instrument whose value is derived from the value of one or more _________.

a) Equity shares

b) Preference shares

c) Debentures

d) underlying assets

e) None of these

Q.178) Which of the following person topped the list of Forbes Middle East top 100 business leaders of owner category?

a) Mogul Yusuff Ali

b) Sanjeev Chadha

c) Sunil Vaswani

d) Ravi Pillai

e) Sunny Varkey

Q.179) Goa Chief Minister Manohar Parrikar launched a government web portal. It is a part of Centre e-district mission programme under which citizens able to get residence and income certificate etc. Which one of the following Portal is correct?

a) www.onlinegoa.in

b) www.onlinegoa.gov.in

c) www.goaonline.gov.in

d) www.goaonline.in

e) www.goagoonline.gov.in

Q.180) Which of the following port is located in Odisha?

a) Nhava Sheva Port

b) Haldia Port

c) Paradip Port

d) Kandla Port

e) Mormugao Port

Q.181) India’s first Ornamental fish tech park to be setup in ______.

a) Gandhinagar

b) Kochi

c) Bangalore

d) Chennai

e) Chandigarh

Q.182) Which of the following Mobile application for grievance redressal of the Central Armed Police Forces (CAPFs) launched by union home minister Rajnath Singh?

a) MHA (Ministry of Home Affairs)

b) BSFMyApp

c) JawanApp

d) CAPFsApp

e) SoldierApp

Q.183) Excise tax is———–

a) Direct tax

b) Indirect tax

c) Securities

d) FMC

e) None of these

Q.184) Kamakhya Temple is located in which state?

a) Sikkim

b) Assam

c) Manipur

d) Mizoram

e) Odisha

Q.185) Who was taken over as MD and CEO of Union Bank of India?

a) Rajkiran Rai G

b) Usha Ananthasubramaniyam

c) R. Subramania Kumar

d) Sunil Mehta

e) Rajeev Rishi

Q.186) The IPC Para athletics World Championships to be held in _____.

a) New Delhi

b) London

c) Beijing

d) Paris

e) Tokyo

Q.187) Which of the following bank has tied up with cash back portal Cashkaro.com?

a) ICICI Bank

b) Bandhan Bank

c) Axis Bank

d) Citi Bank

e) YES Bank

Q.188) Which among the following is non-tax revenue?

a) Fees

b) Penalties

c) Grants and Gifts

d) All of the above

e) None of these

Q.189) Which of the following state Highest Child (0-6 years) sex ratio in Census 2011?

a) Haryana

b) Mizoram

c) Manipur

d) Bihar

e) Kerala

Q.190) Prakash Javadekar launched “Vidya – Veerta Abhiyan” in New Delhi to encourage the students from Universities and educational institutions across the country to display portraits of Param Veer Chakra-decorated soldiers. He is the _______.

a) Minister of Human Resource Development

b) Minister of Textiles

c) Minister of Social Justice & Empowerment

d) Minister of Agriculture & Farmers Welfare

e) Minister of Statistics & Programme Implementation

Q.191) Who won a gold medal in men 200m T44 event at the 2017 World Para Athletics GP in China?

a) Hokato Sema

b) Ramudri Someshwaro Rao

c) Varun Singh Bhati

d) Devendra Jhajharia

e) Lal Vinay Kumar

Q.192) GST is a—————–

a) Indirect tax

b) direct tax

c) Fine

d) State government tax

e) None of these

Q.193) Sultan Azlan Shah Cup is related to which sport?

a) Football

b) Basketball

c) Hockey

d) Cricket

e) Tennis

Q.194) Which of the following bank launched a Digital saving account namely as “811”?

a) City Union Bank

b) CITI Bank

c) RBL Bank

d) Kotak Mahindra Bank

e) Axis Bank

Q.195) Daporijo Airport is located in which of the following state?

a) Assam

b) Meghalaya

c) Tripura

d) Nagaland

e) Arunachal Pradesh

Q.196) The GST is administrated by

a) Central government

b) State government

c) Both (a) and (b)

d) International government

e) None of these

Q.197) The Mutual Fund is controlled by?

a) SEBI

b) RBI

c) SBI

d) Financial commission

e) None of these

Q.198) China will host the second Belt and Road international forum in _____.

a) 2018

b) 2019

c) 2020

d) 2021

e) 2022

Q.199) Andhra Pradesh signed an MoU with which of the following country to enhance cooperation between them and to create opportunity to invest in the new capital, Amaravati?

a) Malaysia

b) Japan

c) Singapore

d) China

e) Nepal

Q.200) Name the Minister of State (I/C) for Labour and Employment who launched two schemes “One IP – Two Dispensaries” and “Aadhaar based Online Claim Submission” on the occasion of International Labour Day?

a) Anil Madhav Dave

b) Piyush Goyal

c) Bandaru Dattatreya

d) Rajiv Pratap Rudy

e) Vijay Goel

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