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SBI PO – Mains Previous year paper

SBI PO - Mains Previous year paper

D.1-5) Study the following information carefully and answer the question given below:

Eight persons M, N, O, P, Q, R, S and T are sitting in a square table. Four of them sitting in the corner while four persons sitting in the middle of the table. Person sits at the corner faces inside while person sits at the middle of the table faces outside. They are living in eight different floors of a building but not necessarily in the same order. The lowermost floor is numbered one and so on.

M sits second to the right of S. R and N are immediate neighbours of each other. Neither R nor N is an immediate neighbour of M and S who lives on the third floor. M does not live below S. Two persons live between R and S. The person who is faces N lives in the seventh floor. M lives three floors above O who lives immediately above Q. Neither T nor P lives on the topmost floor. R does not face inside. Q is not an immediate neighbour of S and R in the square table. One who lives in the topmost floor does not sit opposite to S. Person lives in the first and fourth floor are sits opposite to each other. Persons live between M and S is same as the persons live between O and T.

Q.1) Which among the following statement is true according to the seating?

a) One person sits between P and S

b) M and N facing same direction

c) R sits second to the right of S

d) T faces Q

e) None is true

Q.2) Who among the following sits opposite to the person who lives in the fifth floor?

a) One who lives in seventh floor

b) One who lives in sixth floor

c) One who lives in third floor

 

d) One who lives in second floor

e) None of these

Q.3) If all are facing opposite direction in the square table then who among the following sits seventh to the left of P?

a) S

b) M

c) N

d) R

e) None of these

Q.4) In the floors, N is related to T, P is related to S in the same way M is related to who among the following?

a) One who sits second to the right of P

b) One who sits second to the right of R

c) One who sits second to the right of N

d) One who sits second to the right of S

e) None of these

Q.5) Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on the information and hence form a group. Which of the following does not belong to the group? (in floor arrangement)

a) N

b) R

c) T

d) O

e) S

D.6-8) Use the given relationships and answer the questions that follows

A@B means A is the husband of B

A#B means A is the father of B

A$B means A is the mother of B

A%B means A is the brother of B

A*B means A is the sister of B

A!B means A is the daughter of B

A&B means A is the son of B

A+B means A is the wife B

Q.6) Which of the following means Q is cousin of U?

a) S * P @ Q * R * T & U

b) P * Q ! S % R @ U $ T

c) Q * P % S & R @ T + U

d) P * Q & R % S @ T $ U

e) None of these

Q.7) Which of the following combination comes in the hyphen to F is brother in law of I?

_!_&_$_@_

a) E, H, G, F, I

b) F, H, I, E, G

c) E, F, G, H, I

d) G, F, H, I, E

e) None of these

Q.8) Which of the following statement is true?

A # B $ C ! D & E

a) D is brother of A

b) D is brother in law of A

c) D is son in law of C

d) A is son in law of D

e) C is granddaughter of E

D.9-13) Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions below:

Ten different vegetables Carrot, Cucumber, Radish, Turnip, Potato, Onion, Broccoli, Eggplant, Tomato and Cabbage are placed in ten boxes numbered 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9 and 10 are placed adjacent to one another in two different rows of five boxes each row. Each box is of different colours blue, orange, black, yellow, purple, green, pink, gold, white and silver. All the datas given are not necessarily in the same order.

Box with odd numbers are placed opposite to the box with even numbers and no two even numbered boxes and no two odd numbered boxes are adjacent to each other. No two boxes are placed in consecutive numbers.

Box numbered 3 contains Turnip, placed opposite to yellow coloured box and is to extreme right of one end of the row. Box numbered 5 and 7 are not placed in the row of box numbered 3.Tomato is in box numbered 5, and the box is not placed in the row where box 6 placed. Box contains cucumber is opposite to pink coloured box and placed in even numbered box in a row where Turnip is placed but both are not adjacent to each other. Box contains broccoli and white coloured box are adjacent to box numbered 7. Green coloured box placed in even numbered position but not box numbered 4. Yellow coloured box is diagonally opposite to box numbered 1, which contains potato. Blue coloured box is placed one end of the row.

Box numbered 5 is second from one end of the row, which is opposite to gold coloured box. Box 6 is containing eggplant. One of the immediate neighbours of box 6 is opposite to the box which contains onion. Orange coloured box containing carrot and is placed two places away from white coloured box, which is not placed any end of the row. Silver coloured box is placed in middle of the row and opposite to immediate neighbour of black coloured box. Box no.2 does not contain onion.

Q.9) Box numbered 4 contains which of the following vegetables?

a) Carrot

b) Onion

c) Broccoli

d) Cucumber

e) None of these

Q.10) Which of the following boxes is adjacent to the box which contains tomato and white coloured box respectively?

a) Orange and cabbage

b) Pink and radish

c) Carrot and Black

d) Box numbered 8 and 9

e) None of these

Q.11) Which of the following combination is/are true?

a) Carrot-Orange-box 6

b) Box 10-white-onion

c) Black- box 7- radish

d) Tomato- box 5- purple

e) Yellow-broccoli-box 4

Q.12) Box containing potato is in which of the following colour?

a) Blue

b) Orange

c) Purple

d) Black

e) Either a or c

Q.13) Which of the following statement is/are true?

a) None of these

b) Box numbered 9 is in silver colour and placed adjacent to blue coloured box.

c) Box numbered 9 containing cabbage and is placed adjacent to cucumber box and green coloured box.

d) Box 2 containing broccoli and in yellow colour and placed opposite to box numbered 3, which is blue colour.

e) Box numbered 8 is in orange colour, contains carrot and placed diagonally opposite to box containing turnip.

D.14-18) In each of the questions given below consists of a statement and / or a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statement(s) is / are sufficient to answer the given question. Read the both statements and Give answer:

a) If the data in Statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement II alone is not sufficient to answer the question.

b) If the data in Statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement I alone is not sufficient to answer the question.

c) If the data in either Statement I or Statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question.

d) If the data even in both Statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.

e) If the data in both Statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

Q.14) What is the rank of Aniruddh in the class?

I. There are 17 male students got less score then Aniruddh.

II. Total number of students in the class is 29.

Q.15) Six friends Daaruk, Daha, Daksha, Dakshi, Daniel and Darpan are sitting around a circular table and facing centre. Who is sitting opposite to Dakshi?

I. Daha sits opposite to Darpan, who sits second to the right of Daksha.

II. Darpan sits immediate right of Daniel and second to the left of Dakshi.

Q.16) How is Oorjit related to Tanya?

I. Oorjit has one Son and two Daughters.

II. Tanya’s Brother is son of Oorjit.

Q.17) In which direction is Tushar facing?

I. Ranbir and Lakshit are facing each other.

II. Lakshit is to the right of Tushar. Ranbir is not facing south.

Q.18) In a building consists of four floors numbered 1 to 4 and the lowermost floor is numbered 1 and the above floor is numbered 2, and so on. In which floor does Habib live?

I. Only two people live below Hussain, who lives immediately above Habib.

II. Hasmukh lives immediately below Habib, who lives two floors below Hamir.

D.19-20) In the questions below there are three conclusions followed by five set of statements. You have to choose the correct set of statements that logically satisfies given conclusions:

Q.19) Conclusions:

Some Accounts are not drafts

All Checks are Accounts is a possibility

Some Discounts are check is a possibility

Statements:

I. No savings are Checks. Generally Savings are Accounts. Some Drafts are savings. All discounts are not savings.

II. No checks are Savings. Some Savings are not Accounts. Each Drafts are Savings. Often discounts are not Savings.

III. Some checks are not Savings. Some Savings are not Accounts. Each Drafts are Savings. Often discounts are not Savings.

IV. Some Checks are not Savings. Some Drafts are Savings. No Accounts are Savings. Some Discounts are not savings

V. Every Checks are Savings. Frequently Discounts are not savings. No Drafts are Savings. Most of Savings are Accounts

a) Only statement II follows

b) Only Statement III follows

c) Only statements IV follow

d) Only statements I and V follow

e) Only statements V follow

Q.20) Conclusions:

Frequently Computers are Joystick

Each Joysticks are Windows is a possibility

Often Graphics are not Hard disk.

Statements:

I. No windows are computers. Frequently Computers are Joysticks. Some graphics are Hard disk. No Joysticks are graphics

II. No windows are computers. Frequently Computers are Joysticks. No graphics are Hard disk. No Joysticks are graphics

III. Some windows are not computers. No Computers are Joysticks. No graphics are Hard disk. Some Joysticks are graphics

IV. Most of windows are Computer. Frequently Joysticks are Computers. No Graphics are Hard disk. Some Joysticks are Graphics

V. Some windows are not computers. Frequently Computers are Joysticks. Each Graphics are Hard disk. Some Joysticks are graphics

a) Only statement II follows

b) Only Statement III follows

c) Only statements IV follow

d) Only statements I and V follow

e) Only statements V follow

Q.21) In the following question, two statements numbered A and B are given. These two statements may be the effect of the same cause or independent causes. These statements may be independent causes without having any relationship. Read both the statements in the question and decide which statement is cause and which statement effect.

Statement A: In the past few years enrolment in government schools of country Matino has declined from 133.7 million to 121 million per year, while enrolment in private schools has increased from 51 million to 78 million per year.

Statement B: Due to lack of funds, government schools of Matino are unable to hire properly trained teachers who would be able to provide good learning environment to the students.

a) Both the statements (A) and (B) are effects of some common cause.

b) Statement (A) is the cause and Statement (b) is it effect

c) Statement (B) is the cause and Statement (A) is its effect.

d) Both the statements (A) and (B) are effects of independent causes.

e) Both the statements (A) and (B) are independent causes.

Q.22) In the question below is given a statement followed by two assumptions numbered I and II. You have to consider the statement and the following assumptions and decide which of the assumptions is implicit in the statement.

The question consists of a statement followed by two assumptions numbered I and II. An assumption is something supposed or taken for granted. You have to consider the statement and the following assumptions and decide which of those is/are implicit in the statement?

Statement: Bank B has requested the Apex Bank of the country to permit them to dilute government’s stake in the bank to raise funds from the equity market to balance the losses from non-performing assets.

Assumption I: The funds generated by diluting the government’s stake will enable the bank to recover from the losses to some extent.

Assumption II: At least some equity investors will be ready to purchase the shares of the bank.

a) Only assumption I is implicit

b) Only assumption II is implicit

c) Either I or II is implicit

d) Neither I nor II is implicit

e) Both I and II are implicit

D.23-27) Study the following information to answer the given questions.

In a certain code language,

“New economic development begin” is written as “38%v 30~p 17#x 46&s”

“Great influence to development” is written as “19@y 30~p 27%v 40*r”

“New opportunity to start” is written as “19@y 15%v 14~p 17#x”

“Have less economic opportunity” is written as “46&s 14~p 41$w 23$w”

Q.23) Which of the following is the code for the word “economic”?

a) 38%v

b) 30~p

c) 17#x

d) 46&s

e) None of these

Q.24) The code “27%v 15%v” denotes which of the following word?

a) Development start

b) Great influence

c) Great start

d) Either a or b

e) None of these

Q.25) Which of the following is the code for the word “Capacity”?

a) 26?s

b) 26&t

c) 25&s

d) 26*s

e) 26&s

Q.26) The code “38%v 46?u” denotes which of the following word?

a) New economic

b) Great influence

c) Development start

d) Course begin

e) None of these

Q.27) What will be the code for “given opportunity for development”?

a) 30~p 33%v 14~p 30&x

b) 30~p 33$v 14~p 30#x

c) 30~p 33%v 14*p 30#x

d) 30?p 33%v 14~p 30#x

e) 30~p 33%v 14~p 30#x

D.28) In this question there are four conclusions followed by five set of statements. You have to choose the correct set of statements that logically satisfies given conclusions.

Q.28) Conclusions:

Often Fruits can be flower.

Most of the Foods can be Chocolate.

Some Chocolates are Flower.

All Juices are Fruit is a Possibility.

Statements:

I. Frequently Juices are Food. Some Foods are Fruit. No Food is Chocolate. No Chocolate is flower.

II. Some Juices are Food. Frequently Foods are Fruit. No Fruit is flower. No Food is Chocolate.

III. Atleast Some Juices are Food. No Food is Fruit. No Fruit is flower. All Chocolates are flower.

IV. Some Juices are Food. Often Foods are Fruit. No Food is Chocolate. All Chocolates are flower.

V. Atleast some Juices are Food. Generally Foods are Fruit. No Fruit is Chocolate. Every Chocolate is flower.

a) Only statement II follows

b) Only Statement III follows

c) Only statement IV follows

d) Only statements I and V follow

e) Only statement V follows

D.29) In this question consists of information and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide which of the given statement is weaken(s) or Strengthen(s) the given information and choose the appropriate answer.

Q.29) Information: Since the past three years, more number of students in country G is opting for law courses as compared to the earlier years.

Statements:

I. The number of applications has been consistent for admission in law colleges of country G has been consistent since the past 5 years.

II. The number of students ready to pay heavy donations to get admission in the most sought after Law College of country G are consistently increasing for past three years.

a) Statement I weakens the information while statement II strengthens the information.

b) Both statement I and statement II weaken the information.

c) Statement I strengthens the information while statement II weakens the information.

d) Both statement I and statement II are neural statements

e) Both statement I and statement II strengthen the information.

D.30) In this question below is given a statement followed by conclusions. You have to assume everything in the statement to be true then decide which of the conclusion logically follows from the information given in the statement.

Q.30) Statement: Experts define the social entrepreneurship as such that purposes opportunities to serve the mission to give solutions to social problems. Business entrepreneurs typically measure performance in profit and return.

a) It is possible to address social problems while making business profitable.

b) Business entrepreneurship is more important than social entrepreneurship.

c) Business entrepreneurship does not care social problems while devising their business policy.

d) Social entrepreneurship is different from the business entrepreneurship.

e) None of these

D.31-35) In the following questions, the symbols %, ÷, +, * and – are used with the following meaning as illustrated below:

P+Q means P is neither greater than nor equal to Q

P-Q means P is either greater than or equal to Q

P%Q means Q is neither greater than nor smaller than to P

P÷Q means P is neither smaller than nor equal to Q

P*Q means P is either smaller than or equal to Q

Q.31) Statements:

A-B÷C+D; G+B-E; H+C-F

Conclusions:

I. A÷E

II. A%E

III. C÷H

a) Only I follows

b) Only II and III follow

c) Either I or II and III follow

d) Neither I nor III follow

e) None of these

Q.32) Statements:

J%K*L+M; L÷N-O; N%P*W.

Conclusions:

I. J÷N

II. L-O

III. L÷P

a) Only I follows

b) Only II and III follow

c) Either I or II and III follow

d) Neither I nor II follows

e) Only III follows

Q.33) Statements:

A+S%E÷T-Y; E*D-U+K.

Conclusions:

I. A+D

II. D-Y

III. S*U

a) Only I and III follow

b) Only II follows

c) All follow

d) Only I follows

e) Either I or II follows

Q.34) Statements:

Q%E+Y÷H; G*Y-I; K÷Z+I

Conclusions:

I. Y÷I

II. Y%I

III.Y÷Z

a) Either I or III follows

b) Only III follows

c) All I, II and III follow

d) Either I or II and III follow

e) None follows

Q.35) Statements:

B+R%S*H; P+H*K÷V-T

Conclusions:

I. R*K

II. T÷S

III.V+B

a) Only III follows

b) Only II follows

c) Both I and III follow

d) Only I follows

e) None follows

Q.36) Statement: The ministry of aviation has ordered to procure 35 new aircraft to be added to the existing fleet this year.

Which of the following most appropriately proves that the decision taken by the aviation minister is unrealistic and not based on scientific projections?

a) A recent survey showed that the existing aircraft in the flee fail to match the international standards and quality norms.

b) As the number of passengers has declined significantly this year, the existing fleet is not being used to its full potential.

c) The neighbouring country which also procured aircraft lacked enough number of trained pilots.

d) These new aircraft have better technology and greater number of seats as compared to ones already existing in the fleet.

e) As many as 12 pilots are not on flying duties for two straight weeks due to lack of sufficient aircraft to ply on the routes.

D.37-38) Study the following information carefully and answer the given question.

Edwin travelled by bike from his home 3km towards north then takes right turn then travelled 8km and turn left travelled 6km to reach temple. He is travelled 7km towards east from the temple and takes left turn travelled 6km and turn right travelled 5 km to reach Edwin’s friends home. Both are travelled 9km towards south to reach their college.

Q.37) What is the shortest distance between Edwin home and his friend’s home?

a) 20 km

b) 25 km

c) 15 km

d) 30 km

e) None of these

Q.38) Edwin’s home is which direction with respect to his college?

a) North west

b) South east

c) South west

d) North east

e) None of these

D.39-40) In each questions given below there are three conclusions followed by five set of statements. You have to choose the correct set of statements that logically satisfies given conclusions:

Q.39) Conclusions:

No Pen is Shoe.

Some Papers are not Book.

Some Papers are not Pen.

Statements:

I. No Pen is book. No book is Shoe. Generally Shoes are Paper.

II. Every Pen is book. Each Book is Shoe. No Shoe is paper.

III. Every Pen is book. No book is Shoe. Frequently Shoes are Paper.

IV. Some Pens are book. No book is Shoe. No Shoe is Paper.

V. All Pens are book. Some books are Shoe. Some Shoes are Paper.

a) Only statement II follows

b) Only Statement III follows

c) Only statements IV follows

d) Only statements I follows

e) Only statements V follows

Q.40) Conclusions:

Generally Glasses are not Paste.

Each Watch being Glass is a possibility.

Some Profits are Deposit is a possibility.

Statements:

I. Only Deposits are Watch. Generally Deposits are Glass. Some Pastes are Deposits. All Profits are not Deposits.

II. No Watch is Deposit. Some Deposits are not Glass. Each Paste is Deposit. Often Profits are not Deposit.

III. Some Watches are not Deposit. Some Deposits are not Glass. Each Paste is Deposit. Often Profits are not Deposit.

IV. Some Watches are not Deposit. Some Pastes are Deposit. No Glass is Deposit. Some Profits are not Deposit.

V. Every Watch is Deposit. Frequently Profits are not Deposit. No Paste is Deposit. Most of the Deposits are Glass.

a) Only statement II follows

b) Only Statement III follows

c) Only statement IV follows

d) Only statement V follows

e) Only statement I follows

D.41-45) Omega (Ω) represents 1 and Beta (β) represents 0. If omega appears in unit’s place then its value is 1. If it appears in 10’s place its value is doubled (i.e. 2) like that it continues. Using the given terminology answer the following question.

Q.41) How will be the represent ‘75’ in this code language?

a) ΩΩββΩΩβ

b) ΩΩΩβββΩ

c) ΩββΩβΩΩ

d) ΩΩββΩΩβ

e) None of these

Q.42) What will be the code for ‘ΩββΩβΩΩβ’?

a) 145

b) 140

c) 160

d) 150

e) 155

Q.43) What will be the code for one’s complement of ‘ΩβΩβ’?

a) 5

b) 3

c) 1

d) 4

e) None of these

Q.44) What will be the LCM of ΩβΩββ and ΩΩΩΩβ?

a) ΩβΩβΩΩ

b) ΩΩβΩββ

c) ΩΩΩΩββ

d) ΩβΩβΩβ

e) None of these

Q.45) What will be the HCF of ΩβΩββ and ΩΩΩΩ?

a) ΩΩβ

b) ΩβΩ

c) βΩβ

d) ββΩ

e) ΩΩβ

D.46-50) Study the following information and answer the questions

The following chart shows that the number of three different electronic items sold by five different shops in 2016

 

Q.46) What is the total number of LED TVs and Washing machines sold by Shops A, B and C together?

a) 1380

b) 7110

c) 7400

d) 7190

e) 7240

Q.47) What is the ratio between the total number of LED TVs sold by Shops B and D together and the total number of Washing machine sold by Shops E and A together?

a) 153:154

b) 12:17

c) 105:118

d) 155:159

e) None of these

Q.48) What is the difference between the total number of all the three items sold by Shop A and the total number of Home theatres sold by shops A, D and E together?

a) 1352

b) 1310

c) 1570

d) 1545

e) 5250

Q.49) Total number of Washing machines sold by all the five shops together is approximately what percent of the total number of all the three items sold by shop E and C together?

a) 78%

b) 74%

c) 57%

d) 63%

e) 86%

Q.50) What is the total number of all the three items sold by Shops A, C and E together?

a) 10700

b) 10160

c) 18300

d) 19000

e) 12000

 

D.51-55) Study the following information carefully and answer the given question

The following chart shows that the percentage of students appeared the GATE exam in five different states in 2017. In total, 6400 students appeared for the GATE exam in 2017 in Punjab.

The following table shows that the ratio between the appeared students to cleared students and the ratio between male to female who cleared the GATE exam.

 

RATIO

Male to female ratio who cleared the exam

Appeared

Cleared

Male

Female

Tamil Nadu

16

7

5

4

Karnataka

20

9

7

5

Delhi

16

11

23

27

Maharashtra

48

25

1

1

Punjab

8

5

19

21

 

Q.51) What is the total number of male students who cleared GATE exam in Tamil Nadu and Delhi together?

a) 12000

b) 12012

c) 12102

d) 10212

e) 12002

Q.52) What is the ratio between the total number of males who cleared the exam from the states Punjab and Maharashtra together to the total number of students who cleared the GATE exam from Tamil Nadu?

a) 63:62

b) 62:43

c) 44:63

d) 44:61

e) None of these

 

Q.53) What is the total number of students who are not cleared the GATE exam from all the states together?

a) 35900

b) 26790

c) 35290

d) 35920

e) 32970

Q.54) Total number of male students who cleared the GATE exam from Tamil Nadu is what percent of the total number of female students who are not cleared the GATE exam from Maharashtra?

a) 140%

b) 120%

c) 142%

d) 189%

e) Data insufficient

Q.55) In 2018, Total number of students appeared for the GATE 2018 exam is increased by 20% from the previous year in all states, then What is the total number of students who appeared for GATE 2018 exam in all the given states?

a) 80000

b) 96000

c) 90000

d) 86000

e) None of these

D.56-60)

Q.56) Quantity I:

Quantity II:

a)

b)

c)

d)

e)

Q.57)

a)

b)

c)

d)

e)

Q.58) Quantity I:

Quantity II:

a)

b)

c)

d)

e)

Q.59) Quantity I: Find the missing number 15, 0, 30, 45, 240, (?)

Quantity II: Find the missing number 3, 25, 202, (?), 12956, 103653

a)

b)

c)

d)

e)

Q.60) Quantity I: Find the Discount rate for buy 4 get 3

Quantity II: Find the discount rate for buy 5 get 4

a)

b)

c)

d)

e)

D.61-65) Study the following carefully and answer the given question.

A family consists of five persons Raja, Ram, Ragu, Raga and Ravi with different ages. The average age of Raja, Ram, Ragu and Raga is 35. The total sum of the ages of Raja, Ram, Ragu and Ravi is 137. The average age of Ram, Ragu, Raga and Ravi is 34.75. The average age of Raja, Ragu, Raga and Ravi is 36.25. The average age of Raja, Ram, Raga and Ravi is 35.75

Q.61) What is the average age of Ram and Ravi?

a) 32

b) 35

c) 32.5

d) 33.5

e) 36.5

Q.62) If another person Rani whose age is 4 more than the Ravi’s age is joined with a family. Then what is the average age of the family now?

a) 40

b) 36

c) 42

d) 43

e) 44

 

Q.63) What is the difference between the Raga’s age and Ram’s age?

a) 4

b) 5

c) 7

d) 8

e) 9

Q.64) When Ravi is replaced by a new person then the average age of the family increases by 0.8. Then what is the age of the new person?

a) 36

b) 38

c) 42

d) 40

e) 30

Q.65) If two more persons (Vijay and Vimal) whose age is in the ratio 2:3 joined the family then average age of the family decreases by 2.2. Then what is the age of Vimal?

a) 24

b) 16

c) 34

d) 12

e) 22

D.66-70) Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions

The following table shows that the ages of two persons from 5 different cities

 

Person 1

Person 2

Total ages

Tirunelveli 60
Chennai
Madurai
Coimbatore 50 96
Trichy  

 

Note- In Tirunelveli, Person 1 said to Person 2: “I am 3 times as old as you were when I was as old as you are.”

-in Chennai, Six years ago Person 1 was twice as old as Person 2.And the ratio of their present age is 9: 5 respectively

-In Madurai, Twice the difference between the ages of person 1 from Chennai and Person 2 from Tirunelveli is equal to the age of a person 1 from Madurai.

– Total sum of ages of all the person 1 from all the five cities together is 246

-The average ages of both the persons from Tirunelveli is equal to the age of the person 2 from Trichy.

-Total age of all the persons together is 412

Q.66) What is the total sum of the ages of Person 1 from the cities Trichy, Chennai and Tirunelveli together?

a) 112

b) 124

c) 136

d) 130

e) 230

Q.67) What is the difference between the sum of the ages of person 1 from all the cities together and the sum of the ages of person 2 from all the cities together?

a) 80

b) 74

c) 86

d) 76

e) 82

Q.68) What is the ratio between the age of person 1 from Tirunelveli and the person 2 from Trichy?

a) 3:5

b) 5:6

c) 1:6

d) 6:5

e) 5:4

Q.69) Total age of both the person from Tirunelveli is what percent of the total ages of both the person from Madurai?

a) 60%

b) 72%

c) 82.5%

d) 62.5%

e) 12%

Q.70) What is the total sum of the ages of person 1 from cities Tirunelveli, Chennai, Trichy and person 2 from the cities Madurai and Coimbatore together?

a) 216

b) 318

c) 200

d) 218

e) 300

D.71-75) Study the following carefully and answer the given question

Four boxes have three different coloured balls like white, yellow and green. Total number of balls in Box C is 7/10 of the total number of balls in box D. Box A contains 5 white and 4 yellow balls. Total number of yellow and green balls in box D is 5 less than the total number of balls in box A. If one ball is drawn random from the box A, then the probability that the ball is green is 2/5. The ratio between the yellow and green balls in box D is 1:4. The total number of green balls in box A is equal to the number of yellow balls in box B. The total number of green balls in box B is 4 times more than the number of yellow balls in Box D. Total number of white balls in box B is half of green balls in Box C. Box C has 4 white balls and 6 yellow balls and certain number of green balls. If one ball is taken randomly from box C, then the probability that the ball is green is 2/7.

Q.71) If two balls are drawn at random from box A, what is the probability that both the balls are white?

a) 2/23

b) 1/21

c) 1/15

d) 2/21

e) 3/23

Q.72) If three balls are drawn at random from the box B, What is the probability that the 2 balls are yellow and one is green?

a) 3/14

b) 1/28

c) 11/28

d) 19/28

e) None of these

Q.73) if two balls are taken at random from the box C, then what is the probability that the one ball is white and another one is green?

a) 2/21

b) 15/91

c) 16/91

d) 3/28

e) 1/90

Q.74) if three balls are drawn at random from the box D, then what is the probability that all the three balls are white?

a) 2/17

b) 1/20

c) 1/19

d) 2/19

e) None of these

Q.75) What is the total number of balls in all the four boxes together?

a) 89

b) 65

c) 78

d) 55

e) 85

D.76-80) In each of the following questions, a question followed by two statements numbered I and II are given. You have to read both the statements and then give answer as per following options.

a) The data given in statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question, whereas the data given in statement II alone is not sufficient to answer the question.

b) The data given in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question whereas the data given in statement I alone is not sufficient to answer the question.

c) The data in either statement I alone or in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question.

d) The data in both the statements I and II are not sufficient to answer the question.

e) The data given in both the statements I and II are necessary to answer the question.

Q.76) A vendor sells some Boxes of pen for Rs.250 each, boxes of pencils for Rs.150 each and boxes of note for Rs.700 each. How many boxes of Note did the vendor sell?

I. The vendor sold three boxes of pen.

II. In total the vendor sold 10 boxes of stationary items for Rs.3000.

Q.77) What will be the compound interest on a sum after 4 years?

I. The difference between the CI and SI on the sum for 3 years at 5% per annum is Rs.122

II. The compound interest on the sum at 5% per annum for 2 years is Rs.50 more than the SI.

Q.78) What is the area of the circle?

I. The diameter of the circle is 24 cm.

II. The perimeter of the circle is 44cm

Q.79) What is the salary of Arun?

I. Arun spends the 23% of his salary for loan and 12 % of salary for entertainment.

II. Sanjana’s salary is Rs.2500 more than the Aakash Salary and Aakash salary is 10% less than the Aruna’s salary, Aakash salary is Rs.25000.

Q.80) What is the difference between the two numbers?

I. The sum of 30% of the first number and 70% of the second number is 210.

II. The second number is 60% of the first number.

 

 

D.81-50): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it.

The five-member NK Singh panel set up to review the Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management Act (FRBM) 2003 has gone about its task in a workmanlike manner, but falls short on breaking new conceptual ground. The burden of its message is that fiscal targets are “operational goals”, or a means to keeping the debt-to-GDP ratio in check. Now at 68 per cent, the panel suggests that the ideal ratio is 60 per cent. To this end, the panel suggests a glide path to reduce the fiscal deficit to 2.5 per cent of GDP by FY 2023. The panel recommends an “escape clause” or deviation from the target (0.5 percentage points) in the event of a recession or agricultural crisis. It suggests the creation of an “independent” fiscal council to manage the fiscal deficit. Yet there is no escaping the feeling that the panel skirts key criticisms of the FRBM law. It has stuck to a conservative approach to managing public debt. That such an approach can constrict the space for public expenditure at a time when private investment is not forthcoming, as over the last five years, needs to be considered. The Approach Paper to the Eleventh Five-Year Plan points out that taking a stern view even of revenue expenditure can be counterproductive for its effect on social spending. The sanctity of the fiscal deficit target of 3 per cent of GDP remains unclear, reinforcing the view that it has been lifted from the Maastricht treaty. This is not to argue that the deficit is irrelevant, but that the macroeconomic context is crucial. The Government must be in a position to turn on the spigots when needed. The dissenting view articulated by Chief Economic Advisor Arvind Subramanian needs to be taken seriously. As Economic Survey 2016-17 argues: “A mechanical comparison (of the debt-to-GDP ratio) is not an appropriate way of assessing India’s strength. If fiscal and debt sustainability is about confidence and trust as revealed in the ability and willingness of governments to limit their debt levels and pay them off without disruption…then India’s record is very good.” Subramanian has suggested targeting the primary deficit (the difference between revenue and expenditure excluding interest repayments) instead, since it implies whether the Government is collecting enough revenue to meet its running costs. The Survey points out that at high rates of growth, India’s primary deficit ought to have been lower. The Government “is dependent on growth and favourable interest rates to contain the debt ratio” — an admission of vulnerability to shocks. It is, therefore, important to adjust deficit targets, taking into account the limits of monetary policy in a downturn. Deficit management should be more revenue than expenditure driven. India cannot afford a squeeze on capital and social expenditure. Its tax to GDP ratio of 16 per cent (Centre and States) can surely improve, thanks to GST and other tax reforms.

Q.46) Management of deficit in finance should focus on:

a) Expanding revenue collection.

b) Increase in expenditure.

c) Social concepts.

d) A squeeze on capital.

e) Both (a) and (b).

Q.47) The term ‘primary deficit’ refers to which of the following?

a) The difference between revenue and expenditure including interest repayments.

b) The difference between revenue and expenditure excluding interest repayments.

c) The addition of revenue and expenditure excluding interest repayments.

d) A fixed deficit.

e) None of the above.

Q.48) A strict view of revenue expenditure is likely to affect which of the following?

a) Payment of interest on loans.

b) Balance of Payments.

c) Social spending will be curtailed.

d) The GDP.

e) Both (a) and (c).

Q.49) The term an “escape clause” as used in the passage refers to.

a) An escape from the fiscal goal.

b) A slight deviation from the target.

c) An abnormal deviation from the target.

d) Both (a) and (b).

e) Debt to GDP ratio deviation.

Q.50) An appropriate title to the passage could be.

a) Fiscal Discipline.

b) Fiscal Deficit.

c) Fiscal ambivalence.

d) Financial Constraints of Citizens.

e) Mismanagement of Finance.

D.51-58): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it.

While India’s focus is riveted upon Pakistan this week, its most important neighbour China is in the middle of a big diplomatic initiative. In a major speech in Beijing on Monday, Chinese Prime Minister Wen Jiabao will mark the fiftieth anniversary of the enunciation of “Panchsheel”. For Beijing, the current celebrations are not merely about the relationship with India, They are an occasion to underline China’s new approach to international relations. The anniversary of Panchsheel has become a vehicle for the Chinese leadership to allay fears in Asia about the consequences of a rising China. It is part of a systematic effort in Beijing to rebut the theory of the “China threat”. India, too, is marking the anniversary, but at a lower key. The principles were first elaborated in the preamble to the agreement on Tibet between the two nations signed on June 28, 1954. The principles were fairly simple: mutual respect for each other’s territorial integrity and sovereignty, non-aggression, non-interference in each other’s internal affairs, equality and mutual benefit, and peaceful coexistence. In India, there always was some ambiguity about the context in which the Panchsheel was announced. The 1954 Agreement codified the Indian recognition of Tibet’s integration with China. India also gave up the many special privileges in Tibet that it had inherited from the British Raj. But all that is water under the bridge. It might have little to do with China’s diplomatic campaign on Panchsheel. There could be two reasons behind the decision in Beijing to lend such a high political profile to Panchsheel. First is the recognition in China that it must end its silence in the current vigorous international debate between Europe and America on how to structure the post Cold War global order. Emphasising an independent foreign policy, China has until now largely kept itself out of this debate on unilateralism versus multilateralism. In the run up to the Iraq war and after, it was Europe that led the political charge against the Bush administration. While it opposes the unilateralism of the Bush administration, China is not enamoured with the European view on multilateralism. China has no desire to degrade the notion of sovereignty and accept European calls for a supra-national and interventionist U.N. The Panchsheel, in essence, is a state-centric view of the world and India continues to share this Chinese emphasis on state sovereignty. Second, Beijing’s campaign on Panchsheel is aimed at debunking the theory that the rise of China as a major power will inevitably undermine peace and security in Asia and the world. Since late last year Chinese leadership-President Hu Jintao and Premier Wen-have been articulating the proposition that the “peaceful rise of China” will be to the benefit of all in Asia. The Chinese doctrine of heping jueqi — literally means “rising rapidly in a peaceful way” — was developed by a bunch of Shanghai academics. Heping jueqi emphasises that “good neighbourliness and global responsibility” will be at the core of a rising China’s external policy. The Chinese leaders insist that Beijing’s rise in Asia will offer a “win-win” situation for its neighbours by promoting pan-Asian growth. In expounding on the organic linkage between heping jueqi and Panchsheel, Premier Wen tomorrow would argue that unlike the other great powers, China will not seek hegemony. He is also likely to reiterate the proposition that heping jeuqi means putting aside differences on territorial issues and pursuing joint development of disputed areas. The theory of a peaceful rise of China and the celebration of Panchsheel should lead New Delhi and Beijing towards a reordering of their long boundary. The elements of this transformation are an early resolution of the boundary dispute and expanded cooperation across borders. The on-going dialogue between exiled Tibetans and Beijing also promises a political reconciliation in Tibet and reinforces the prospect for Sino-Indian cooperation. The Sino-Indian agreement of 1954, which offered easy access across the border to traders and pilgrims, recognised the commercial and cultural connectivity of the Himalayas. It permitted substantial presence of trade missions from the other side in their own territory and obligated them to develop routes to holy sites. But these elements of the agreement as well as the rhetoric about Panchsheel did not survive the intensity of mutual distrust between the two emerging nations. As they revisit Panchsheel today, India and China are more confident in their own territorial sovereignty. China sees itself as a rising power and India an emerging one. If heping jueqi is right, India and China need not be rivals. They could indeed be partners. But to prove the sceptics wrong, New Delhi and Beijing must come up with more than words. Their emphasis on the principles for a democratic global order will have no meaning if they cannot expand their own cooperation. To be credible on Panchsheel, India and China need to open up the trans-Himalayan regions to each other to create shared prosperity. To get there, they should rework the trade, cultural and consular provisions of the 1954 Agreement on Tibet to suit the new political and economic circumstances.

Q.51) In the opinion of China, which one of the following is accurate?

a) India is a democracy and China, a communist.

b) India is an underdog and China a super power.

c) India and China are major trade giants.

d) India is an emerging power and China a rising one.

e) America’s influence on European countries is dominant.

Q.52) “But these elements of the agreement as well as the rhetoric about Panchsheel did not survive the intensity of mutual distrust between the two emerging nations”-this sentence has which of the inferences?

a) The intensity of mutual distrust between the two emerging nations has a debilitating effect on the elements of the Panchsheel and its eulogistic perception.

b) The intensity of mutual distrust between the two emerging nations is so overwhelming that the essence and rhetoric about Punchsheeel just evaporated.

c) The elements of the agreement as well as the rhetoric about Panchsheel was so intense that it did not survive the mutual distrust between the two emerging nations.

d) Both (a) and (b).

e) None of the above.

Q.53) The meaning of ‘heping jeuqi’ according to the passage is:

a) Setting aside differences on territorial issues and pursuing joint development of areas under dispute.

b) Setting off differences on territorial issues and pursuing joint development of disputed areas.

c) Putting off differences on territorial issues and pursuing joint development of disputed areas.

d) Putting down differences on territorial issues and pursuing joint development of disputed areas.

e) Putting up differences on territorial issues and pursuing joint development of disputed areas.

Q.54) The meaning of the idiomatic expression “But all that is water under the bridgeis:

a) Anything that is beyond one’s reach.

b) Vastness of anything that is important.

c) Things of the past having no importance or relevance at present.

d) Two or more things that can be bridged.

e) Transient.

Q.55) Which of the following are indicated as rising China’s external policy matters?

a) Good neighbourliness and global peace.

b) Good neighbourliness and global responsibility.

c) Global Control and warm neighbourliness.

d) Commercial and cultural connectivity of the Himalayas.

e) Strengthening peace and avoiding wars.

Q.56) One of the reasons attributed for China to lend a high political profile to Panchsheel is stated in the passage as:

a) The intensity of mutual distrust between the two emerging nations, India and China.

b) Recognition of the commercial and cultural connectivity of the Himalayas.

c) Post Cold War global order.

d) Debunking the theory that the rise of China as a major power will inevitably undermine peace and security in Asia and the world.

e) None of the above.

Q.57) The term ‘Panchsheel’ does not include which of the following?

a) Non-aggression.

b) Mutual distrust.

c) Equality and mutual benefit.

d) Peaceful coexistence.

e) Both (a) and (b).

Q.58) The Sino-Indian agreement of 1954 offered which of the following facilities?

a) Ready access across the border to diplomats.

b) Easy access across the border to pilgrims.

c) Easy access across the border to Traders.

d) Ensured cultural connectivity of the Himalayas.

e) Only (b), (c) and (d).

D.59-65): In each of the following questions, five options a),b), c), d) and e) are given, of which one word is most nearly the same or opposite in meaning to the given word in the question. Find the correct option giving either the same or opposite meaning.

Q.59) Omnipotent

a) Ambit

b) Sanguine

c) Ambivalent

d) Double sure

e) Invincible

Q.60) Bibliophile

a) Eternal

b) Lover of arts.

c) Lover of books

d) Assertive

e) Ambrosial

Q.61) Incontrovertible

a) Warlock

b) Irrefutable

c) Sorcerer

d) Apropos

e) Clairvoyant

Q.62) Reminiscence

a) Contribute

b) Ramification

c) Awkward

d) Conducive

e) Remembrance

Q.63) Recalcitrant

a) Amenable

b) Intricacy

c) Obvious

d) Elaboration

e) Oculist

Q.64) Expostulate

a) Vivacity

b) Embrace

c) Peerage

d) Intense liking

e) Enervation

Q.65) Aristocratic

a) Constraint

b) Concur

c) Indecorous

d) Grapnel

e) Tenancy

D.66-70): In each of the following questions a short passage followed by five sentences is given. One of the sentences relevant to the passage is marked by a blank space. Select the best out of the five answer choices given Viz.(a),(b),(c), (d) and (e) to make the passage complete and coherent (coherent means logically complete and sound).

Q.66) ______________________________. The IT sector not only pulled the GDP up but also came to symbolise young India’s aspirations. With the world now bending towards protectionism, it faces a challenge to its talent-centric, software export model. In recent weeks, a slew of countries, which are estimated to account for three-fourths of the industry’s revenues, have placed stricter rules on their companies getting talent from overseas.

a) The passport rule changes for Indian tech personnel weren’t wholly unexpected.

b) The Australian equivalent of this is the recent junking of what are called the ‘457 visa’ rules.

c) Earlier this month, the U.K. scrapped a category of short-term visas that have been used extensively by Indian companies to get their IT professionals on-site. d) A globalising world enabled the spectacular rise of India’s information technology industry over the last couple of decades.

e) Singapore has reportedly kept approvals for work permits on hold for a while now.

Q.67) To begin with, Bhutan’s objections are environmental, not political, and its government may well change its mind as time goes by. Dry runs have been conducted along the routes, and officials estimate the road links could end up circumventing circuitous shipping routes by up to 1,000 km. Second, Bhutan’s concerns may be assuaged if India considers the inclusion of waterways and riverine channels as a less environmentally damaging substitute. _____________________.

a) According to the government’s most recent survey of the quality of it in India, 10% of all things from ‘government sources’ tested NSQ, or not of standard quality.

b) The main concern expressed by Bhutanese citizen groups and politicians is over increased vehicular and air pollution in a country that prides itself on ecological consciousness.

c) The industry, which employs over 3.5 million people and earns over $100 billion in export revenues, is now navigating a world with walls.

d) Perhaps, Bhutan’s objections may even spur an overhaul of emission standards for trucks currently plying in India, Nepal and Bangladesh.

e) The government must seriously consider using IT tools to network all 36 regulators into one integrated nation.

Q.68) A more pressing question at this stage is whether all generic medicines in India are of equal quality. The U.S. and the European Union have ensured that generic drugs are therapeutically equal to the innovator drug by making bioequivalence (BE) testing compulsory. This means that generic formulations are tested on healthy volunteers to ensure that they have the same physiological characteristics as their innovator counterparts. ________________________.

a) Once bioequivalence is established, a generic drug is legally certified to be of the same quality to replace the innovator product and can therefore be interchanged for the innovator product.

b) These BE studies are much cheaper and carry little risk when compared to clinical trials conducted by the company that gets approval for the innovator product.

c) Even the World Health Organisation (WHO) and Medicines Sans Frontières (MSF) purchase only bioequivalent drugs for their programmes.

d) Until earlier this month, India mandated BE studies for only those formulations seeking approval within four years of the innovator product getting approval.

e) As a result, most generic drug manufacturers sought marketing approval from the fifth year onwards, effectively evading the requirement of conducting BE studies.

Q.69)___________________________.But then a salubrious drop in temperature accompanies the rough descent down the six metre-wide mouth of a medieval aqueduct to the north-west of the city. Here, about 25 feet below ground, is cool and softly flowing water, clear as crystal till bare feet touch the floor of the trough and raise a dense cloud of red sediment. Medicinal ‘chamkora’ fern cluster around the white kaolin (calcium) deposits where the waterline meets the unleavened laterite.

a) Fifteen metres into the tunnel, a 63-feet-high shaft opens to the sky and lets a swathe of light cast vague shadows on the inky darkness further ahead, where the water is deep enough to drown a man.

b) The play of water and light streaks the rock face in subtly rich mineral colours: black basalt, pinkish bauxite, umber iron, ochre clay.

c) The vast flatlands outlying Bidar face the brunt of the sun as it bears down on a thinly populated terrain marked by few trees and sparse foliage.

d) Apertures in the towering walls indicate crevices from which, nearly 600 years ago, wicker lamps may have offered light to labouring workers.

e) Harmless water bugs (Aquarius remigis) that help keep the water potable flutter in disarray.

Q.70) In the United Kingdom, police have to prove predicate offence through circumstantial evidence, linking it to the funds generated and laundered. Wherever money laundering is treated as a standalone crime, U.K. agencies are not required to wait for the outcome of investigations into the predicate offence. Also, they are not supposed to prove that the funds are proceeds of a particular offence. ______________________________.

a) Based on enough circumstantial evidence, they have to just establish that the proceeds had a criminal origin.

b) The Central government is considering a proposal to make money laundering a separate criminal offence to be investigated by the Enforcement Directorate.

c) According to experts, the government will have to bring about several amendments to the PMLA, including the current definition of the “proceeds of crime”.

d) This will facilitate quick action against those indulging in money laundering.

e) The Special Investigation Team on black money has also been of the view that money laundering investigations by the Enforcement Directorate.

D.71-75): Five sentences marked as a), b), c), d) and e) are given below. Out of which four are connected to the same theme/concept. Find out the odd option which is irrelevant to the given theme and mark your answer accordingly.

Q.71) a) Language is a formal system of signs governed by grammatical rules of combination to communicate meaning.

b) Language has the properties of productivity and displacement, and relies entirely on social convention and learning.

c) A group of languages that descend from a common ancestor is known as a language family.

d) Language is processed in many different locations in the human brain, but especially in Broca’s and Wernicke’s areas.

e) Language as a system of communication that enables humans to exchange verbal or symbolic utterances.

Q.72) a) The President, Mr. K.R. Narayanan, today called for a shift in priority of human rights perspective to focus on the deprived and the excluded.

b) Mr. Narayanan said the vast number of cases on human rights violations that came before the NHRC was an indication of the emerging consciousness of the people about their human rights.

c) The President pointed out the effective way to solve such problems and ensure civilised existence of the people was to guarantee the human rights of the weaker sections in full measure.

d) Observing that women constituted the largest deprived and excluded group, the President said “it is important to remember and reiterate that women’s rights are human rights”

e) Mr. Narayanan, who was the chief guest at the `Human Rights Day’ celebrations, said the weaker sections of society suffered the most from human rights failures in economic, social and cultural areas.

Q.73) a) The human resource consulting industry has emerged from management consulting and addresses human resource management tasks and decisions.

b) The Expert Resource Consultant suggests solutions based on expertise and experience and assists in the implementation.

c) Human resource consultancies vary in their ranges of services and sizes, with many consultants and academicians breaking off to form their own practices.

d) The Process consultant assists in searching for solutions with methods that facilitate and raise creativity of the client company so that they will be able to implement solutions themselves.

e) The strategic planning component came into play as a result of companies recognizing the need to consider Human resource needs in goals and strategies.

Q.74) a) A Bad bank is set up to buy the bad loans of a bank with significant nonperforming assets at market price.

b) By transferring the bad assets of an institution to the bad bank, the banks clear their balance sheet of toxic assets but would be forced to take write downs.

c) The price at which PSB loans are sold to the bad bank could become a major issue. If the price is too high, the bad bank will not be viable.

d) When a bad bank has gone through its credit work-out process, the remains of the bad bank are often asset ownership.

e) The bank may wish to segregate its “good” assets from its “bad” assets through the creation of a bad bank.

Q.75) a) Banks, it is often said, are the fulcrum of a robust economy.

b) Healthy banks are an essential prerequisite for placing the economy on a higher growth orbit.

c) Bank requires not just holistic thinking but an out-of-the-box approach as well, especially in the evolving global context.

d) A meaningful fix can happen only if banks are given functional autonomy at various levels.

e) The central bank has for now chosen to hedge its bets by reiterating an “accommodative policy stance”.

D.76-80): Select the phrase or connector from the given three options marked I II and III which can be used with or without replacement of certain words to form a pattern of the two sentences given below, implying the same meaning as expressed in the stated sentences as per grammar.

Q.76) “The highest fare segmentation, 2,700 tickets were booked on September 9 and 3,200 tickets on September 10,” Mr. Jamshed said adding that the railways had earned additional revenue of Rs. 80 lakh per day on September 9 and 10. Once half the tickets are sold out, fares rise to 1.5 times of the previous base fares in the premium trains.

I. In the highest fare segment

II. But, additional revenue

III. At the highest fare segments

Pick out the option which can combine both the above sentences into one.

a) Only I

b) Only II

c) Only III

d) Both I & II

e) Both II & III

Q.77) During they travelled so far as Iran, we wanted to know their mode of journey till Afghanistan and we have asked to Iran and Afghanistan for information on the movement of these people. Even both the countries had told they have no details,” said a senior official of the Union Home Ministry.

I. They travelling.

II. Since they travelled.

III. Both countries had informed that.

Pick out the option which can combine both the above sentences into one.

a) Both I & III

b) Both II & III

c) Only I

d) Only III

e) None of the above.

Q.78) Since there was a confusion about the date, for many years, his death anniversary was observed on both days. It was observed on both the days earlier,” says Mr. Viswanathan, who has compiled all works of Bharathiyar.

I. For the time to

II. However, there are confusions

III. Since the time for

Pick out the option which can combine both the above sentences into one.

a) Both I & II

b) Both II & III

c) Only III

d) Only II

e) None of the above.

Q.79) If animal activists, who are aware of these methods, say that they have raised the issue several times with the police. “We conduct raids but cannot take action, and the police don’t help as it is a sensitive issue,” said Saurabh Gupta, a raiding officer with Maneka Gandhi’s NGO — People For Animals.

I. Even

II. If animal activists, who are awareness

III. Then, we conducts raid

Pick out the option which can combine both the above sentences into one.

a) Only I

b) Only II

c) Both I & II

d) Both II & III

e) None of the above.

Q.80) The Delhi Metro has demanding a fare revision considering the increase in electricity tariff and other operational costs. Data with the corporation, 40 per cent of DMRC’s total expenditure is on account of electricity charges, which has increased by almost 100 per cent in the past six years.

I. The Delhi Metro has been demanding

II. Meanwhile, the Delhi Metro has demands

III. According to data with

Pick out the option which can combine both the above sentences into one.

a) Only I

b) Only II

c) Both I & III

d) Both II & III

e) Only III

Q.116) IT services major Infosys announced its engineering footprint in Eastern Europe by opening its first delivery center (DC) in ________.

a) Cyprus

b) Ukraie

c) Monaco

d) Luxemburg

e) Croatia

Q.117) Which of the following two Indian warships have visited Egypt as part of Indian Navy’s overseas deployment to the Mediterranean Sea and the west coast of Africa?

a) INS Vishal and INS Mumbai

b) INS Mumbai and INS Vikrant

c) INS Kochi and INS Vikramaditya

d) INS Mumbai and INS Aditya

e) INS Chennai and INS Vikramaditya

Q.118) Punjab government appoints R. N. Dhoke and Sudhanshu S. Srivastava as Commissioners of which two cities in its state respectively?

a) Patiala and Pathankot

b) Mansa and Hoshiarpur

c) Barnala and Bathinda

d) Firozpur and Gurudaspur

e) Amritsar and Ludhiana

Q.119) Which State Government signed an MoU with the Ziquitza Health Care to introduce a boat ambulance service in four districts where people face difficulties in getting health service?

a) Goa

b) Maharashtra

c) Gujarat

d) Andhra Pradesh

e) Odissa

Q.120) “Quality Research in Homeopathy through Scientific evidence and rich clinical experience” is theme for World Homeopathy Day. When it is observed?

a) April 5th

b) April 15th

c) April 10th

d) April 12th

e) April 14th

Q.121) Which of the following has proposed a four-point initiative to overcome differences and deepen relations with India which includes aligning its ‘One Belt One Road’ project with India’s Act East Policy?

a) Iran

b) Mongolia

c) Maldives

d) China

e) Nepal

Q.122) Which of the following sportsperson becomes the 1st Indian to take pole in FIA Formula 3 European Championship?

a) Jehan Daruvala 

b) Jake Hughes

c) Nikita Mazepin

d) Lando Norris

e) Jake Dennis

Q.123) What is the currency of Albania?

a) Lek

b) Kwanza

c) Nakfa

d) Gourde

e) Som

Q.124) Which of the following Indian scientists elected as the fellows of Royal Society, recently?

a) Krishna Chatterjee

b) Yadvinder Malhi

c) Yaduvendar Chatterjee

d) Subhash Khot

e) Only a, b & d

Q.125) Noted sand artist from Odisha Sudarsan Pattnaik has been selected to represent India in the 10th Sand Art Championship 2017 to be held in _____.

a) Moscow

b) Frankfurt

c) Paris

d) Los Angeles

e) Taipai

Q.126) Which of the following Chief Minister has unveiled the ‘Olly the turtle’ logo and mascot of the Asian athletics championship to spread awareness about the endangered Olive Ridley turtle?

a) Nitish Kumar

b) Naveen Patnaik

c) Pema Khandu

d) Sarbananda Sonowal

e) Chandrababu Naidu

Q.127) Which of the person has been honoured with “Grand Cordon of the Order of the Rising Sun”, in recognition of his achievements in bolstering India-Japan ties?

a) Amir Singh

b) Amreet Singh

c) Ashwin Kumar

d) Ashwani Kumar

e) Aravind Kumar

Q.128) Which among the following is a qualitative tool of monetary policy?

a) Bank Rate

b) Credit Ceiling

c) Credit rationing

d) Cash Reserve Ratio

e) None of these

Q.129) What term is used for maximum capital which the company can raise in its life time?

a) Authorized Capital

b) Registered Capital

c) Nominal Capital

d) All of them
e) None of these

Q.130) Indian origin Dame Asha Khemka wins “Asian Businesswoman of the Year” award belongs to which country?

a) London

b) France

c) Canada

d) Britain

e) Singapore

Q.131) India has been sanctioned how much amount to children of freedom fighters in Bangladesh for the next five years under the new ‘Muktijodha scholarship’ scheme?

a) Rs.40 Crore

b) Rs.50 Crore

c) Rs.35 Crore

d) Rs.30 Crore

e) Rs.25 Crore

Q.132) Headquarter of World Tourism Organization is located in _____.

a) Brussels, Belgium

b) Madrid, Spain

c) Lausanne, Switzerland

d) Copenhagen, Denmark

e) Paris, France

Q.133) India’s first ever “Transgender Sports Meet” held in _______.

a) Odissa

b) West Bengal

c) Maharashtra

d) Tamil Nadu

e) Kerala

Q.134)The Bank for the changing world” is the tagline of which Bank?

a) HSBC

b) Axis Bank

c) Bank of America

d) BNP Paribas

e) Dhanlaxmi Bank

Q.135) NTPC has commissioned 500 GW units in Unchahar, Uttar Pradesh which contributes nearly ______ percentage of India’s power generation.

a) 14%

b) 24%

c) 44%

d) 54%

e) 74%

Q.136) Headquarter of Oriental Bank of Commerce is _____.

a) Mumbai

b) Hyderabad

c) Bangalore

d) New Delhi

e) Gurugram

Q.137) Which of the following bank is not in risk according to regulatory action of Prompt Corrective Action (PCA) is implemented properly, warns American Financial company Standard & Poor’s in a report?

a) Union Bank of India

b) Bank of India

c) Indian Bank

d) Indian Overseas Bank

e) IDBI Bank

Q.138) Which among the following is NOT a subsidiary of RBI?

a) National Housing Bank

b) NABARD

c) Bharatiya Reserve Bank Note Mudran Private Limited

d) SIDBI 

e) None of these

Q.139) Asset Reconstruction Company is associated with _____.

a) DICGC

b) ECGC

c) NPA

d) SEBI

e) None of the above

Q.140) Canada has recently introduced a new non-stop flight from Mumbai to ______ and is expecting double-digit growth in tourist arrivals from India?

a) Alberta

b) Toronto

c) Quebec

d) Ontario

e) Manitoba

Q.141) Which of the following is the popular name of the norms by which a bank satisfies itself about the customer’s identity and activities?

a) Basel norms

b) KYC norms

c) Service norms

d) Lending norms

e) None of the above

Q.142) Which of the following states will get a campus of the Film & Television Institute of India (FTII) which will be an extension of Satyajit Ray Film & Television Institute of Kolkata?

a) Assam

b) Arunachal Pradesh

c) Odissa

d) Bihar

e) Jharkhand

Q.143) Stock Holding Corporation of India Ltd (SHCIL) was established as a ________ company.

a) Private Limited

b) Unlimited

c) Public limited

d) Limited Liability Partnership

e) None of the above

Q.144) What is the initial capital amount to start Small Finance Banks?

a) 100 crore

b) 200 crore

c) 500 crore

d) 1000 crore

e) 1500 crore

Q.145) Which cricketer of New Zealand has announced his retirement from international cricket after England’s T20 competition?

a) Martin Guptill

b) Ross Taylor

c) Trent Bout

d) Tim Southee

e) Grant Elliott

Q.146) Which department did Prof. Nandini Sundar of Delhi School of Economics belongs, who won Dr Malcolm & Adiseshiah Award?

a) Chemistry

b) Statistics

c) Economics

d) Sociology

e) Literature

Q.147) Name the person who inventor the G.I.Joe action figure was died in Los Angeles at the age of 84, recently?

a) Stanley Weston

b) Guy Hamilton

c) James Cameroon

d) James Wan

e) Sam Mendes

Q.148) Which of the following women cricketer become the leading wicket taker in women’s ODI?

a) Kat Perry

b) Jhulan Goswami

c) Harmanpreet Kaur

d) Heather Knight

e) Meg Lanning

Q.149) How many digits are there in CIBIL score?

a) 4

b) 3

c) 6

d) 9

e) 1

Q.150) Rs.1400 crores (EUR 200 million) has been sanctioned by European Investment Bank (EIB) to ________ to fund solar projects?

a) Reserve Bank of India

b) State Bank of India

c) Indian Overseas Bank

d) Punjab National Bank

e) Indian Bank

Q.151) Which of the following app was acquired by US tech giant Apple?

a) Faceapp

b) Beddit

c) Snapchat

d) Workflow

e) Tuple jump

Q.152) Who won twin crown (both singles and doubles) badminton at Pembangunan Jaya Raya Junior Grand Prix in U-15 category?

a) Samiya Farooqui

b) Gayatri Pullela

c) Bernice Lim

d) Kelly Larissa

e) Shelandry Vyola

Q.153) Which of the following system is launched by PM Modi to make the paperless system in supreme court?

a) Integrated Case Modules system

b) Digital management system

c) Integrated Case Management system

d) Integrated Court management system

e) None of these

Q.154) Which of the following country has decided to replace the Maitri Station in Antartica?

a) India

b) Japan

c) United States of America

d) United Kingdom

e) France

Q.155) Name the National Security Adviser of U.S. to visit India shared his perspective on the security situation in the extended region including in Afghanistan, West Asia and the DPRK [Democratic People’s Republic of Korea]?

a) Lt. Gen. H.R. McMaster

b) Lt. Gen. Mike Pence

c) Lt. Gen. James Mattis

d) Lt. Gen. Wilbur Ross

D.1-5) Study the following information carefully and answer the question given below:

Eight persons M, N, O, P, Q, R, S and T are sitting in a square table. Four of them sitting in the corner while four persons sitting in the middle of the table. Person sits at the corner faces inside while person sits at the middle of the table faces outside. They are living in eight different floors of a building but not necessarily in the same order. The lowermost floor is numbered one and so on.

M sits second to the right of S. R and N are immediate neighbours of each other. Neither R nor N is an immediate neighbour of M and S who lives on the third floor. M does not live below S. Two persons live between R and S. The person who is faces N lives in the seventh floor. M lives three floors above O who lives immediately above Q. Neither T nor P lives on the topmost floor. R does not face inside. Q is not an immediate neighbour of S and R in the square table. One who lives in the topmost floor does not sit opposite to S. Person lives in the first and fourth floor are sits opposite to each other. Persons live between M and S is same as the persons live between O and T.

Q.1) Which among the following statement is true according to the seating?

a) One person sits between P and S

b) M and N facing same direction

c) R sits second to the right of S

d) T faces Q

e) None is true

Q.2) Who among the following sits opposite to the person who lives in the fifth floor?

a) One who lives in seventh floor

b) One who lives in sixth floor

c) One who lives in third floor

 

d) One who lives in second floor

e) None of these

Q.3) If all are facing opposite direction in the square table then who among the following sits seventh to the left of P?

a) S

b) M

c) N

d) R

e) None of these

Q.4) In the floors, N is related to T, P is related to S in the same way M is related to who among the following?

a) One who sits second to the right of P

b) One who sits second to the right of R

c) One who sits second to the right of N

d) One who sits second to the right of S

e) None of these

Q.5) Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on the information and hence form a group. Which of the following does not belong to the group? (in floor arrangement)

a) N

b) R

c) T

d) O

e) S

D.6-8) Use the given relationships and answer the questions that follows

A@B means A is the husband of B

A#B means A is the father of B

A$B means A is the mother of B

A%B means A is the brother of B

A*B means A is the sister of B

A!B means A is the daughter of B

A&B means A is the son of B

A+B means A is the wife B

Q.6) Which of the following means Q is cousin of U?

a) S * P @ Q * R * T & U

b) P * Q ! S % R @ U $ T

c) Q * P % S & R @ T + U

d) P * Q & R % S @ T $ U

e) None of these

Q.7) Which of the following combination comes in the hyphen to F is brother in law of I?

_!_&_$_@_

a) E, H, G, F, I

b) F, H, I, E, G

c) E, F, G, H, I

d) G, F, H, I, E

e) None of these

Q.8) Which of the following statement is true?

A # B $ C ! D & E

a) D is brother of A

b) D is brother in law of A

c) D is son in law of C

d) A is son in law of D

e) C is granddaughter of E

D.9-13) Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions below:

Ten different vegetables Carrot, Cucumber, Radish, Turnip, Potato, Onion, Broccoli, Eggplant, Tomato and Cabbage are placed in ten boxes numbered 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9 and 10 are placed adjacent to one another in two different rows of five boxes each row. Each box is of different colours blue, orange, black, yellow, purple, green, pink, gold, white and silver. All the datas given are not necessarily in the same order.

Box with odd numbers are placed opposite to the box with even numbers and no two even numbered boxes and no two odd numbered boxes are adjacent to each other. No two boxes are placed in consecutive numbers.

Box numbered 3 contains Turnip, placed opposite to yellow coloured box and is to extreme right of one end of the row. Box numbered 5 and 7 are not placed in the row of box numbered 3.Tomato is in box numbered 5, and the box is not placed in the row where box 6 placed. Box contains cucumber is opposite to pink coloured box and placed in even numbered box in a row where Turnip is placed but both are not adjacent to each other. Box contains broccoli and white coloured box are adjacent to box numbered 7. Green coloured box placed in even numbered position but not box numbered 4. Yellow coloured box is diagonally opposite to box numbered 1, which contains potato. Blue coloured box is placed one end of the row.

Box numbered 5 is second from one end of the row, which is opposite to gold coloured box. Box 6 is containing eggplant. One of the immediate neighbours of box 6 is opposite to the box which contains onion. Orange coloured box containing carrot and is placed two places away from white coloured box, which is not placed any end of the row. Silver coloured box is placed in middle of the row and opposite to immediate neighbour of black coloured box. Box no.2 does not contain onion.

Q.9) Box numbered 4 contains which of the following vegetables?

a) Carrot

b) Onion

c) Broccoli

d) Cucumber

e) None of these

Q.10) Which of the following boxes is adjacent to the box which contains tomato and white coloured box respectively?

a) Orange and cabbage

b) Pink and radish

c) Carrot and Black

d) Box numbered 8 and 9

e) None of these

Q.11) Which of the following combination is/are true?

a) Carrot-Orange-box 6

b) Box 10-white-onion

c) Black- box 7- radish

d) Tomato- box 5- purple

e) Yellow-broccoli-box 4

Q.12) Box containing potato is in which of the following colour?

a) Blue

b) Orange

c) Purple

d) Black

e) Either a or c

Q.13) Which of the following statement is/are true?

a) None of these

b) Box numbered 9 is in silver colour and placed adjacent to blue coloured box.

c) Box numbered 9 containing cabbage and is placed adjacent to cucumber box and green coloured box.

d) Box 2 containing broccoli and in yellow colour and placed opposite to box numbered 3, which is blue colour.

e) Box numbered 8 is in orange colour, contains carrot and placed diagonally opposite to box containing turnip.

D.14-18) In each of the questions given below consists of a statement and / or a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statement(s) is / are sufficient to answer the given question. Read the both statements and Give answer:

a) If the data in Statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement II alone is not sufficient to answer the question.

b) If the data in Statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement I alone is not sufficient to answer the question.

c) If the data in either Statement I or Statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question.

d) If the data even in both Statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.

e) If the data in both Statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

Q.14) What is the rank of Aniruddh in the class?

I. There are 17 male students got less score then Aniruddh.

II. Total number of students in the class is 29.

Q.15) Six friends Daaruk, Daha, Daksha, Dakshi, Daniel and Darpan are sitting around a circular table and facing centre. Who is sitting opposite to Dakshi?

I. Daha sits opposite to Darpan, who sits second to the right of Daksha.

II. Darpan sits immediate right of Daniel and second to the left of Dakshi.

Q.16) How is Oorjit related to Tanya?

I. Oorjit has one Son and two Daughters.

II. Tanya’s Brother is son of Oorjit.

Q.17) In which direction is Tushar facing?

I. Ranbir and Lakshit are facing each other.

II. Lakshit is to the right of Tushar. Ranbir is not facing south.

Q.18) In a building consists of four floors numbered 1 to 4 and the lowermost floor is numbered 1 and the above floor is numbered 2, and so on. In which floor does Habib live?

I. Only two people live below Hussain, who lives immediately above Habib.

II. Hasmukh lives immediately below Habib, who lives two floors below Hamir.

D.19-20) In the questions below there are three conclusions followed by five set of statements. You have to choose the correct set of statements that logically satisfies given conclusions:

Q.19) Conclusions:

Some Accounts are not drafts

All Checks are Accounts is a possibility

Some Discounts are check is a possibility

Statements:

I. No savings are Checks. Generally Savings are Accounts. Some Drafts are savings. All discounts are not savings.

II. No checks are Savings. Some Savings are not Accounts. Each Drafts are Savings. Often discounts are not Savings.

III. Some checks are not Savings. Some Savings are not Accounts. Each Drafts are Savings. Often discounts are not Savings.

IV. Some Checks are not Savings. Some Drafts are Savings. No Accounts are Savings. Some Discounts are not savings

V. Every Checks are Savings. Frequently Discounts are not savings. No Drafts are Savings. Most of Savings are Accounts

a) Only statement II follows

b) Only Statement III follows

c) Only statements IV follow

d) Only statements I and V follow

e) Only statements V follow

Q.20) Conclusions:

Frequently Computers are Joystick

Each Joysticks are Windows is a possibility

Often Graphics are not Hard disk.

Statements:

I. No windows are computers. Frequently Computers are Joysticks. Some graphics are Hard disk. No Joysticks are graphics

II. No windows are computers. Frequently Computers are Joysticks. No graphics are Hard disk. No Joysticks are graphics

III. Some windows are not computers. No Computers are Joysticks. No graphics are Hard disk. Some Joysticks are graphics

IV. Most of windows are Computer. Frequently Joysticks are Computers. No Graphics are Hard disk. Some Joysticks are Graphics

V. Some windows are not computers. Frequently Computers are Joysticks. Each Graphics are Hard disk. Some Joysticks are graphics

a) Only statement II follows

b) Only Statement III follows

c) Only statements IV follow

d) Only statements I and V follow

e) Only statements V follow

Q.21) In the following question, two statements numbered A and B are given. These two statements may be the effect of the same cause or independent causes. These statements may be independent causes without having any relationship. Read both the statements in the question and decide which statement is cause and which statement effect.

Statement A: In the past few years enrolment in government schools of country Matino has declined from 133.7 million to 121 million per year, while enrolment in private schools has increased from 51 million to 78 million per year.

Statement B: Due to lack of funds, government schools of Matino are unable to hire properly trained teachers who would be able to provide good learning environment to the students.

a) Both the statements (A) and (B) are effects of some common cause.

b) Statement (A) is the cause and Statement (b) is it effect

c) Statement (B) is the cause and Statement (A) is its effect.

d) Both the statements (A) and (B) are effects of independent causes.

e) Both the statements (A) and (B) are independent causes.

Q.22) In the question below is given a statement followed by two assumptions numbered I and II. You have to consider the statement and the following assumptions and decide which of the assumptions is implicit in the statement.

The question consists of a statement followed by two assumptions numbered I and II. An assumption is something supposed or taken for granted. You have to consider the statement and the following assumptions and decide which of those is/are implicit in the statement?

Statement: Bank B has requested the Apex Bank of the country to permit them to dilute government’s stake in the bank to raise funds from the equity market to balance the losses from non-performing assets.

Assumption I: The funds generated by diluting the government’s stake will enable the bank to recover from the losses to some extent.

Assumption II: At least some equity investors will be ready to purchase the shares of the bank.

a) Only assumption I is implicit

b) Only assumption II is implicit

c) Either I or II is implicit

d) Neither I nor II is implicit

e) Both I and II are implicit

D.23-27) Study the following information to answer the given questions.

In a certain code language,

“New economic development begin” is written as “38%v 30~p 17#x 46&s”

“Great influence to development” is written as “19@y 30~p 27%v 40*r”

“New opportunity to start” is written as “19@y 15%v 14~p 17#x”

“Have less economic opportunity” is written as “46&s 14~p 41$w 23$w”

Q.23) Which of the following is the code for the word “economic”?

a) 38%v

b) 30~p

c) 17#x

d) 46&s

e) None of these

Q.24) The code “27%v 15%v” denotes which of the following word?

a) Development start

b) Great influence

c) Great start

d) Either a or b

e) None of these

Q.25) Which of the following is the code for the word “Capacity”?

a) 26?s

b) 26&t

c) 25&s

d) 26*s

e) 26&s

Q.26) The code “38%v 46?u” denotes which of the following word?

a) New economic

b) Great influence

c) Development start

d) Course begin

e) None of these

Q.27) What will be the code for “given opportunity for development”?

a) 30~p 33%v 14~p 30&x

b) 30~p 33$v 14~p 30#x

c) 30~p 33%v 14*p 30#x

d) 30?p 33%v 14~p 30#x

e) 30~p 33%v 14~p 30#x

D.28) In this question there are four conclusions followed by five set of statements. You have to choose the correct set of statements that logically satisfies given conclusions.

Q.28) Conclusions:

Often Fruits can be flower.

Most of the Foods can be Chocolate.

Some Chocolates are Flower.

All Juices are Fruit is a Possibility.

Statements:

I. Frequently Juices are Food. Some Foods are Fruit. No Food is Chocolate. No Chocolate is flower.

II. Some Juices are Food. Frequently Foods are Fruit. No Fruit is flower. No Food is Chocolate.

III. Atleast Some Juices are Food. No Food is Fruit. No Fruit is flower. All Chocolates are flower.

IV. Some Juices are Food. Often Foods are Fruit. No Food is Chocolate. All Chocolates are flower.

V. Atleast some Juices are Food. Generally Foods are Fruit. No Fruit is Chocolate. Every Chocolate is flower.

a) Only statement II follows

b) Only Statement III follows

c) Only statement IV follows

d) Only statements I and V follow

e) Only statement V follows

D.29) In this question consists of information and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide which of the given statement is weaken(s) or Strengthen(s) the given information and choose the appropriate answer.

Q.29) Information: Since the past three years, more number of students in country G is opting for law courses as compared to the earlier years.

Statements:

I. The number of applications has been consistent for admission in law colleges of country G has been consistent since the past 5 years.

II. The number of students ready to pay heavy donations to get admission in the most sought after Law College of country G are consistently increasing for past three years.

a) Statement I weakens the information while statement II strengthens the information.

b) Both statement I and statement II weaken the information.

c) Statement I strengthens the information while statement II weakens the information.

d) Both statement I and statement II are neural statements

e) Both statement I and statement II strengthen the information.

D.30) In this question below is given a statement followed by conclusions. You have to assume everything in the statement to be true then decide which of the conclusion logically follows from the information given in the statement.

Q.30) Statement: Experts define the social entrepreneurship as such that purposes opportunities to serve the mission to give solutions to social problems. Business entrepreneurs typically measure performance in profit and return.

a) It is possible to address social problems while making business profitable.

b) Business entrepreneurship is more important than social entrepreneurship.

c) Business entrepreneurship does not care social problems while devising their business policy.

d) Social entrepreneurship is different from the business entrepreneurship.

e) None of these

D.31-35) In the following questions, the symbols %, ÷, +, * and – are used with the following meaning as illustrated below:

P+Q means P is neither greater than nor equal to Q

P-Q means P is either greater than or equal to Q

P%Q means Q is neither greater than nor smaller than to P

P÷Q means P is neither smaller than nor equal to Q

P*Q means P is either smaller than or equal to Q

Q.31) Statements:

A-B÷C+D; G+B-E; H+C-F

Conclusions:

I. A÷E

II. A%E

III. C÷H

a) Only I follows

b) Only II and III follow

c) Either I or II and III follow

d) Neither I nor III follow

e) None of these

Q.32) Statements:

J%K*L+M; L÷N-O; N%P*W.

Conclusions:

I. J÷N

II. L-O

III. L÷P

a) Only I follows

b) Only II and III follow

c) Either I or II and III follow

d) Neither I nor II follows

e) Only III follows

Q.33) Statements:

A+S%E÷T-Y; E*D-U+K.

Conclusions:

I. A+D

II. D-Y

III. S*U

a) Only I and III follow

b) Only II follows

c) All follow

d) Only I follows

e) Either I or II follows

Q.34) Statements:

Q%E+Y÷H; G*Y-I; K÷Z+I

Conclusions:

I. Y÷I

II. Y%I

III.Y÷Z

a) Either I or III follows

b) Only III follows

c) All I, II and III follow

d) Either I or II and III follow

e) None follows

Q.35) Statements:

B+R%S*H; P+H*K÷V-T

Conclusions:

I. R*K

II. T÷S

III.V+B

a) Only III follows

b) Only II follows

c) Both I and III follow

d) Only I follows

e) None follows

Q.36) Statement: The ministry of aviation has ordered to procure 35 new aircraft to be added to the existing fleet this year.

Which of the following most appropriately proves that the decision taken by the aviation minister is unrealistic and not based on scientific projections?

a) A recent survey showed that the existing aircraft in the flee fail to match the international standards and quality norms.

b) As the number of passengers has declined significantly this year, the existing fleet is not being used to its full potential.

c) The neighbouring country which also procured aircraft lacked enough number of trained pilots.

d) These new aircraft have better technology and greater number of seats as compared to ones already existing in the fleet.

e) As many as 12 pilots are not on flying duties for two straight weeks due to lack of sufficient aircraft to ply on the routes.

D.37-38) Study the following information carefully and answer the given question.

Edwin travelled by bike from his home 3km towards north then takes right turn then travelled 8km and turn left travelled 6km to reach temple. He is travelled 7km towards east from the temple and takes left turn travelled 6km and turn right travelled 5 km to reach Edwin’s friends home. Both are travelled 9km towards south to reach their college.

Q.37) What is the shortest distance between Edwin home and his friend’s home?

a) 20 km

b) 25 km

c) 15 km

d) 30 km

e) None of these

Q.38) Edwin’s home is which direction with respect to his college?

a) North west

b) South east

c) South west

d) North east

e) None of these

D.39-40) In each questions given below there are three conclusions followed by five set of statements. You have to choose the correct set of statements that logically satisfies given conclusions:

Q.39) Conclusions:

No Pen is Shoe.

Some Papers are not Book.

Some Papers are not Pen.

Statements:

I. No Pen is book. No book is Shoe. Generally Shoes are Paper.

II. Every Pen is book. Each Book is Shoe. No Shoe is paper.

III. Every Pen is book. No book is Shoe. Frequently Shoes are Paper.

IV. Some Pens are book. No book is Shoe. No Shoe is Paper.

V. All Pens are book. Some books are Shoe. Some Shoes are Paper.

a) Only statement II follows

b) Only Statement III follows

c) Only statements IV follows

d) Only statements I follows

e) Only statements V follows

Q.40) Conclusions:

Generally Glasses are not Paste.

Each Watch being Glass is a possibility.

Some Profits are Deposit is a possibility.

Statements:

I. Only Deposits are Watch. Generally Deposits are Glass. Some Pastes are Deposits. All Profits are not Deposits.

II. No Watch is Deposit. Some Deposits are not Glass. Each Paste is Deposit. Often Profits are not Deposit.

III. Some Watches are not Deposit. Some Deposits are not Glass. Each Paste is Deposit. Often Profits are not Deposit.

IV. Some Watches are not Deposit. Some Pastes are Deposit. No Glass is Deposit. Some Profits are not Deposit.

V. Every Watch is Deposit. Frequently Profits are not Deposit. No Paste is Deposit. Most of the Deposits are Glass.

a) Only statement II follows

b) Only Statement III follows

c) Only statement IV follows

d) Only statement V follows

e) Only statement I follows

D.41-45) Omega (Ω) represents 1 and Beta (β) represents 0. If omega appears in unit’s place then its value is 1. If it appears in 10’s place its value is doubled (i.e. 2) like that it continues. Using the given terminology answer the following question.

Q.41) How will be the represent ‘75’ in this code language?

a) ΩΩββΩΩβ

b) ΩΩΩβββΩ

c) ΩββΩβΩΩ

d) ΩΩββΩΩβ

e) None of these

Q.42) What will be the code for ‘ΩββΩβΩΩβ’?

a) 145

b) 140

c) 160

d) 150

e) 155

Q.43) What will be the code for one’s complement of ‘ΩβΩβ’?

a) 5

b) 3

c) 1

d) 4

e) None of these

Q.44) What will be the LCM of ΩβΩββ and ΩΩΩΩβ?

a) ΩβΩβΩΩ

b) ΩΩβΩββ

c) ΩΩΩΩββ

d) ΩβΩβΩβ

e) None of these

Q.45) What will be the HCF of ΩβΩββ and ΩΩΩΩ?

a) ΩΩβ

b) ΩβΩ

c) βΩβ

d) ββΩ

e) ΩΩβ

D.46-50) Study the following information and answer the questions

The following chart shows that the number of three different electronic items sold by five different shops in 2016

 

Q.46) What is the total number of LED TVs and Washing machines sold by Shops A, B and C together?

a) 1380

b) 7110

c) 7400

d) 7190

e) 7240

Q.47) What is the ratio between the total number of LED TVs sold by Shops B and D together and the total number of Washing machine sold by Shops E and A together?

a) 153:154

b) 12:17

c) 105:118

d) 155:159

e) None of these

Q.48) What is the difference between the total number of all the three items sold by Shop A and the total number of Home theatres sold by shops A, D and E together?

a) 1352

b) 1310

c) 1570

d) 1545

e) 5250

Q.49) Total number of Washing machines sold by all the five shops together is approximately what percent of the total number of all the three items sold by shop E and C together?

a) 78%

b) 74%

c) 57%

d) 63%

e) 86%

Q.50) What is the total number of all the three items sold by Shops A, C and E together?

a) 10700

b) 10160

c) 18300

d) 19000

e) 12000

 

D.51-55) Study the following information carefully and answer the given question

The following chart shows that the percentage of students appeared the GATE exam in five different states in 2017. In total, 6400 students appeared for the GATE exam in 2017 in Punjab.

The following table shows that the ratio between the appeared students to cleared students and the ratio between male to female who cleared the GATE exam.

 

RATIO

Male to female ratio who cleared the exam

Appeared

Cleared

Male

Female

Tamil Nadu

16

7

5

4

Karnataka

20

9

7

5

Delhi

16

11

23

27

Maharashtra

48

25

1

1

Punjab

8

5

19

21

 

Q.51) What is the total number of male students who cleared GATE exam in Tamil Nadu and Delhi together?

a) 12000

b) 12012

c) 12102

d) 10212

e) 12002

Q.52) What is the ratio between the total number of males who cleared the exam from the states Punjab and Maharashtra together to the total number of students who cleared the GATE exam from Tamil Nadu?

a) 63:62

b) 62:43

c) 44:63

d) 44:61

e) None of these

 

Q.53) What is the total number of students who are not cleared the GATE exam from all the states together?

a) 35900

b) 26790

c) 35290

d) 35920

e) 32970

Q.54) Total number of male students who cleared the GATE exam from Tamil Nadu is what percent of the total number of female students who are not cleared the GATE exam from Maharashtra?

a) 140%

b) 120%

c) 142%

d) 189%

e) Data insufficient

Q.55) In 2018, Total number of students appeared for the GATE 2018 exam is increased by 20% from the previous year in all states, then What is the total number of students who appeared for GATE 2018 exam in all the given states?

a) 80000

b) 96000

c) 90000

d) 86000

e) None of these

D.56-60)

Q.56) Quantity I:

Quantity II:

a)

b)

c)

d)

e)

Q.57)

a)

b)

c)

d)

e)

Q.58) Quantity I:

Quantity II:

a)

b)

c)

d)

e)

Q.59) Quantity I: Find the missing number 15, 0, 30, 45, 240, (?)

Quantity II: Find the missing number 3, 25, 202, (?), 12956, 103653

a)

b)

c)

d)

e)

Q.60) Quantity I: Find the Discount rate for buy 4 get 3

Quantity II: Find the discount rate for buy 5 get 4

a)

b)

c)

d)

e)

D.61-65) Study the following carefully and answer the given question.

A family consists of five persons Raja, Ram, Ragu, Raga and Ravi with different ages. The average age of Raja, Ram, Ragu and Raga is 35. The total sum of the ages of Raja, Ram, Ragu and Ravi is 137. The average age of Ram, Ragu, Raga and Ravi is 34.75. The average age of Raja, Ragu, Raga and Ravi is 36.25. The average age of Raja, Ram, Raga and Ravi is 35.75

Q.61) What is the average age of Ram and Ravi?

a) 32

b) 35

c) 32.5

d) 33.5

e) 36.5

Q.62) If another person Rani whose age is 4 more than the Ravi’s age is joined with a family. Then what is the average age of the family now?

a) 40

b) 36

c) 42

d) 43

e) 44

 

Q.63) What is the difference between the Raga’s age and Ram’s age?

a) 4

b) 5

c) 7

d) 8

e) 9

Q.64) When Ravi is replaced by a new person then the average age of the family increases by 0.8. Then what is the age of the new person?

a) 36

b) 38

c) 42

d) 40

e) 30

Q.65) If two more persons (Vijay and Vimal) whose age is in the ratio 2:3 joined the family then average age of the family decreases by 2.2. Then what is the age of Vimal?

a) 24

b) 16

c) 34

d) 12

e) 22

D.66-70) Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions

The following table shows that the ages of two persons from 5 different cities

 

Person 1

Person 2

Total ages

Tirunelveli 60
Chennai
Madurai
Coimbatore 50 96
Trichy  

 

Note- In Tirunelveli, Person 1 said to Person 2: “I am 3 times as old as you were when I was as old as you are.”

-in Chennai, Six years ago Person 1 was twice as old as Person 2.And the ratio of their present age is 9: 5 respectively

-In Madurai, Twice the difference between the ages of person 1 from Chennai and Person 2 from Tirunelveli is equal to the age of a person 1 from Madurai.

– Total sum of ages of all the person 1 from all the five cities together is 246

-The average ages of both the persons from Tirunelveli is equal to the age of the person 2 from Trichy.

-Total age of all the persons together is 412

Q.66) What is the total sum of the ages of Person 1 from the cities Trichy, Chennai and Tirunelveli together?

a) 112

b) 124

c) 136

d) 130

e) 230

Q.67) What is the difference between the sum of the ages of person 1 from all the cities together and the sum of the ages of person 2 from all the cities together?

a) 80

b) 74

c) 86

d) 76

e) 82

Q.68) What is the ratio between the age of person 1 from Tirunelveli and the person 2 from Trichy?

a) 3:5

b) 5:6

c) 1:6

d) 6:5

e) 5:4

Q.69) Total age of both the person from Tirunelveli is what percent of the total ages of both the person from Madurai?

a) 60%

b) 72%

c) 82.5%

d) 62.5%

e) 12%

Q.70) What is the total sum of the ages of person 1 from cities Tirunelveli, Chennai, Trichy and person 2 from the cities Madurai and Coimbatore together?

a) 216

b) 318

c) 200

d) 218

e) 300

D.71-75) Study the following carefully and answer the given question

Four boxes have three different coloured balls like white, yellow and green. Total number of balls in Box C is 7/10 of the total number of balls in box D. Box A contains 5 white and 4 yellow balls. Total number of yellow and green balls in box D is 5 less than the total number of balls in box A. If one ball is drawn random from the box A, then the probability that the ball is green is 2/5. The ratio between the yellow and green balls in box D is 1:4. The total number of green balls in box A is equal to the number of yellow balls in box B. The total number of green balls in box B is 4 times more than the number of yellow balls in Box D. Total number of white balls in box B is half of green balls in Box C. Box C has 4 white balls and 6 yellow balls and certain number of green balls. If one ball is taken randomly from box C, then the probability that the ball is green is 2/7.

Q.71) If two balls are drawn at random from box A, what is the probability that both the balls are white?

a) 2/23

b) 1/21

c) 1/15

d) 2/21

e) 3/23

Q.72) If three balls are drawn at random from the box B, What is the probability that the 2 balls are yellow and one is green?

a) 3/14

b) 1/28

c) 11/28

d) 19/28

e) None of these

Q.73) if two balls are taken at random from the box C, then what is the probability that the one ball is white and another one is green?

a) 2/21

b) 15/91

c) 16/91

d) 3/28

e) 1/90

Q.74) if three balls are drawn at random from the box D, then what is the probability that all the three balls are white?

a) 2/17

b) 1/20

c) 1/19

d) 2/19

e) None of these

Q.75) What is the total number of balls in all the four boxes together?

a) 89

b) 65

c) 78

d) 55

e) 85

D.76-80) In each of the following questions, a question followed by two statements numbered I and II are given. You have to read both the statements and then give answer as per following options.

a) The data given in statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question, whereas the data given in statement II alone is not sufficient to answer the question.

b) The data given in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question whereas the data given in statement I alone is not sufficient to answer the question.

c) The data in either statement I alone or in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question.

d) The data in both the statements I and II are not sufficient to answer the question.

e) The data given in both the statements I and II are necessary to answer the question.

Q.76) A vendor sells some Boxes of pen for Rs.250 each, boxes of pencils for Rs.150 each and boxes of note for Rs.700 each. How many boxes of Note did the vendor sell?

I. The vendor sold three boxes of pen.

II. In total the vendor sold 10 boxes of stationary items for Rs.3000.

Q.77) What will be the compound interest on a sum after 4 years?

I. The difference between the CI and SI on the sum for 3 years at 5% per annum is Rs.122

II. The compound interest on the sum at 5% per annum for 2 years is Rs.50 more than the SI.

Q.78) What is the area of the circle?

I. The diameter of the circle is 24 cm.

II. The perimeter of the circle is 44cm

Q.79) What is the salary of Arun?

I. Arun spends the 23% of his salary for loan and 12 % of salary for entertainment.

II. Sanjana’s salary is Rs.2500 more than the Aakash Salary and Aakash salary is 10% less than the Aruna’s salary, Aakash salary is Rs.25000.

Q.80) What is the difference between the two numbers?

I. The sum of 30% of the first number and 70% of the second number is 210.

II. The second number is 60% of the first number.

 

 

D.81-50): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it.

The five-member NK Singh panel set up to review the Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management Act (FRBM) 2003 has gone about its task in a workmanlike manner, but falls short on breaking new conceptual ground. The burden of its message is that fiscal targets are “operational goals”, or a means to keeping the debt-to-GDP ratio in check. Now at 68 per cent, the panel suggests that the ideal ratio is 60 per cent. To this end, the panel suggests a glide path to reduce the fiscal deficit to 2.5 per cent of GDP by FY 2023. The panel recommends an “escape clause” or deviation from the target (0.5 percentage points) in the event of a recession or agricultural crisis. It suggests the creation of an “independent” fiscal council to manage the fiscal deficit. Yet there is no escaping the feeling that the panel skirts key criticisms of the FRBM law. It has stuck to a conservative approach to managing public debt. That such an approach can constrict the space for public expenditure at a time when private investment is not forthcoming, as over the last five years, needs to be considered. The Approach Paper to the Eleventh Five-Year Plan points out that taking a stern view even of revenue expenditure can be counterproductive for its effect on social spending. The sanctity of the fiscal deficit target of 3 per cent of GDP remains unclear, reinforcing the view that it has been lifted from the Maastricht treaty. This is not to argue that the deficit is irrelevant, but that the macroeconomic context is crucial. The Government must be in a position to turn on the spigots when needed. The dissenting view articulated by Chief Economic Advisor Arvind Subramanian needs to be taken seriously. As Economic Survey 2016-17 argues: “A mechanical comparison (of the debt-to-GDP ratio) is not an appropriate way of assessing India’s strength. If fiscal and debt sustainability is about confidence and trust as revealed in the ability and willingness of governments to limit their debt levels and pay them off without disruption…then India’s record is very good.” Subramanian has suggested targeting the primary deficit (the difference between revenue and expenditure excluding interest repayments) instead, since it implies whether the Government is collecting enough revenue to meet its running costs. The Survey points out that at high rates of growth, India’s primary deficit ought to have been lower. The Government “is dependent on growth and favourable interest rates to contain the debt ratio” — an admission of vulnerability to shocks. It is, therefore, important to adjust deficit targets, taking into account the limits of monetary policy in a downturn. Deficit management should be more revenue than expenditure driven. India cannot afford a squeeze on capital and social expenditure. Its tax to GDP ratio of 16 per cent (Centre and States) can surely improve, thanks to GST and other tax reforms.

Q.46) Management of deficit in finance should focus on:

a) Expanding revenue collection.

b) Increase in expenditure.

c) Social concepts.

d) A squeeze on capital.

e) Both (a) and (b).

Q.47) The term ‘primary deficit’ refers to which of the following?

a) The difference between revenue and expenditure including interest repayments.

b) The difference between revenue and expenditure excluding interest repayments.

c) The addition of revenue and expenditure excluding interest repayments.

d) A fixed deficit.

e) None of the above.

Q.48) A strict view of revenue expenditure is likely to affect which of the following?

a) Payment of interest on loans.

b) Balance of Payments.

c) Social spending will be curtailed.

d) The GDP.

e) Both (a) and (c).

Q.49) The term an “escape clause” as used in the passage refers to.

a) An escape from the fiscal goal.

b) A slight deviation from the target.

c) An abnormal deviation from the target.

d) Both (a) and (b).

e) Debt to GDP ratio deviation.

Q.50) An appropriate title to the passage could be.

a) Fiscal Discipline.

b) Fiscal Deficit.

c) Fiscal ambivalence.

d) Financial Constraints of Citizens.

e) Mismanagement of Finance.

D.51-58): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it.

While India’s focus is riveted upon Pakistan this week, its most important neighbour China is in the middle of a big diplomatic initiative. In a major speech in Beijing on Monday, Chinese Prime Minister Wen Jiabao will mark the fiftieth anniversary of the enunciation of “Panchsheel”. For Beijing, the current celebrations are not merely about the relationship with India, They are an occasion to underline China’s new approach to international relations. The anniversary of Panchsheel has become a vehicle for the Chinese leadership to allay fears in Asia about the consequences of a rising China. It is part of a systematic effort in Beijing to rebut the theory of the “China threat”. India, too, is marking the anniversary, but at a lower key. The principles were first elaborated in the preamble to the agreement on Tibet between the two nations signed on June 28, 1954. The principles were fairly simple: mutual respect for each other’s territorial integrity and sovereignty, non-aggression, non-interference in each other’s internal affairs, equality and mutual benefit, and peaceful coexistence. In India, there always was some ambiguity about the context in which the Panchsheel was announced. The 1954 Agreement codified the Indian recognition of Tibet’s integration with China. India also gave up the many special privileges in Tibet that it had inherited from the British Raj. But all that is water under the bridge. It might have little to do with China’s diplomatic campaign on Panchsheel. There could be two reasons behind the decision in Beijing to lend such a high political profile to Panchsheel. First is the recognition in China that it must end its silence in the current vigorous international debate between Europe and America on how to structure the post Cold War global order. Emphasising an independent foreign policy, China has until now largely kept itself out of this debate on unilateralism versus multilateralism. In the run up to the Iraq war and after, it was Europe that led the political charge against the Bush administration. While it opposes the unilateralism of the Bush administration, China is not enamoured with the European view on multilateralism. China has no desire to degrade the notion of sovereignty and accept European calls for a supra-national and interventionist U.N. The Panchsheel, in essence, is a state-centric view of the world and India continues to share this Chinese emphasis on state sovereignty. Second, Beijing’s campaign on Panchsheel is aimed at debunking the theory that the rise of China as a major power will inevitably undermine peace and security in Asia and the world. Since late last year Chinese leadership-President Hu Jintao and Premier Wen-have been articulating the proposition that the “peaceful rise of China” will be to the benefit of all in Asia. The Chinese doctrine of heping jueqi — literally means “rising rapidly in a peaceful way” — was developed by a bunch of Shanghai academics. Heping jueqi emphasises that “good neighbourliness and global responsibility” will be at the core of a rising China’s external policy. The Chinese leaders insist that Beijing’s rise in Asia will offer a “win-win” situation for its neighbours by promoting pan-Asian growth. In expounding on the organic linkage between heping jueqi and Panchsheel, Premier Wen tomorrow would argue that unlike the other great powers, China will not seek hegemony. He is also likely to reiterate the proposition that heping jeuqi means putting aside differences on territorial issues and pursuing joint development of disputed areas. The theory of a peaceful rise of China and the celebration of Panchsheel should lead New Delhi and Beijing towards a reordering of their long boundary. The elements of this transformation are an early resolution of the boundary dispute and expanded cooperation across borders. The on-going dialogue between exiled Tibetans and Beijing also promises a political reconciliation in Tibet and reinforces the prospect for Sino-Indian cooperation. The Sino-Indian agreement of 1954, which offered easy access across the border to traders and pilgrims, recognised the commercial and cultural connectivity of the Himalayas. It permitted substantial presence of trade missions from the other side in their own territory and obligated them to develop routes to holy sites. But these elements of the agreement as well as the rhetoric about Panchsheel did not survive the intensity of mutual distrust between the two emerging nations. As they revisit Panchsheel today, India and China are more confident in their own territorial sovereignty. China sees itself as a rising power and India an emerging one. If heping jueqi is right, India and China need not be rivals. They could indeed be partners. But to prove the sceptics wrong, New Delhi and Beijing must come up with more than words. Their emphasis on the principles for a democratic global order will have no meaning if they cannot expand their own cooperation. To be credible on Panchsheel, India and China need to open up the trans-Himalayan regions to each other to create shared prosperity. To get there, they should rework the trade, cultural and consular provisions of the 1954 Agreement on Tibet to suit the new political and economic circumstances.

Q.51) In the opinion of China, which one of the following is accurate?

a) India is a democracy and China, a communist.

b) India is an underdog and China a super power.

c) India and China are major trade giants.

d) India is an emerging power and China a rising one.

e) America’s influence on European countries is dominant.

Q.52) “But these elements of the agreement as well as the rhetoric about Panchsheel did not survive the intensity of mutual distrust between the two emerging nations”-this sentence has which of the inferences?

a) The intensity of mutual distrust between the two emerging nations has a debilitating effect on the elements of the Panchsheel and its eulogistic perception.

b) The intensity of mutual distrust between the two emerging nations is so overwhelming that the essence and rhetoric about Punchsheeel just evaporated.

c) The elements of the agreement as well as the rhetoric about Panchsheel was so intense that it did not survive the mutual distrust between the two emerging nations.

d) Both (a) and (b).

e) None of the above.

Q.53) The meaning of ‘heping jeuqi’ according to the passage is:

a) Setting aside differences on territorial issues and pursuing joint development of areas under dispute.

b) Setting off differences on territorial issues and pursuing joint development of disputed areas.

c) Putting off differences on territorial issues and pursuing joint development of disputed areas.

d) Putting down differences on territorial issues and pursuing joint development of disputed areas.

e) Putting up differences on territorial issues and pursuing joint development of disputed areas.

Q.54) The meaning of the idiomatic expression “But all that is water under the bridgeis:

a) Anything that is beyond one’s reach.

b) Vastness of anything that is important.

c) Things of the past having no importance or relevance at present.

d) Two or more things that can be bridged.

e) Transient.

Q.55) Which of the following are indicated as rising China’s external policy matters?

a) Good neighbourliness and global peace.

b) Good neighbourliness and global responsibility.

c) Global Control and warm neighbourliness.

d) Commercial and cultural connectivity of the Himalayas.

e) Strengthening peace and avoiding wars.

Q.56) One of the reasons attributed for China to lend a high political profile to Panchsheel is stated in the passage as:

a) The intensity of mutual distrust between the two emerging nations, India and China.

b) Recognition of the commercial and cultural connectivity of the Himalayas.

c) Post Cold War global order.

d) Debunking the theory that the rise of China as a major power will inevitably undermine peace and security in Asia and the world.

e) None of the above.

Q.57) The term ‘Panchsheel’ does not include which of the following?

a) Non-aggression.

b) Mutual distrust.

c) Equality and mutual benefit.

d) Peaceful coexistence.

e) Both (a) and (b).

Q.58) The Sino-Indian agreement of 1954 offered which of the following facilities?

a) Ready access across the border to diplomats.

b) Easy access across the border to pilgrims.

c) Easy access across the border to Traders.

d) Ensured cultural connectivity of the Himalayas.

e) Only (b), (c) and (d).

D.59-65): In each of the following questions, five options a),b), c), d) and e) are given, of which one word is most nearly the same or opposite in meaning to the given word in the question. Find the correct option giving either the same or opposite meaning.

Q.59) Omnipotent

a) Ambit

b) Sanguine

c) Ambivalent

d) Double sure

e) Invincible

Q.60) Bibliophile

a) Eternal

b) Lover of arts.

c) Lover of books

d) Assertive

e) Ambrosial

Q.61) Incontrovertible

a) Warlock

b) Irrefutable

c) Sorcerer

d) Apropos

e) Clairvoyant

Q.62) Reminiscence

a) Contribute

b) Ramification

c) Awkward

d) Conducive

e) Remembrance

Q.63) Recalcitrant

a) Amenable

b) Intricacy

c) Obvious

d) Elaboration

e) Oculist

Q.64) Expostulate

a) Vivacity

b) Embrace

c) Peerage

d) Intense liking

e) Enervation

Q.65) Aristocratic

a) Constraint

b) Concur

c) Indecorous

d) Grapnel

e) Tenancy

D.66-70): In each of the following questions a short passage followed by five sentences is given. One of the sentences relevant to the passage is marked by a blank space. Select the best out of the five answer choices given Viz.(a),(b),(c), (d) and (e) to make the passage complete and coherent (coherent means logically complete and sound).

Q.66) ______________________________. The IT sector not only pulled the GDP up but also came to symbolise young India’s aspirations. With the world now bending towards protectionism, it faces a challenge to its talent-centric, software export model. In recent weeks, a slew of countries, which are estimated to account for three-fourths of the industry’s revenues, have placed stricter rules on their companies getting talent from overseas.

a) The passport rule changes for Indian tech personnel weren’t wholly unexpected.

b) The Australian equivalent of this is the recent junking of what are called the ‘457 visa’ rules.

c) Earlier this month, the U.K. scrapped a category of short-term visas that have been used extensively by Indian companies to get their IT professionals on-site. d) A globalising world enabled the spectacular rise of India’s information technology industry over the last couple of decades.

e) Singapore has reportedly kept approvals for work permits on hold for a while now.

Q.67) To begin with, Bhutan’s objections are environmental, not political, and its government may well change its mind as time goes by. Dry runs have been conducted along the routes, and officials estimate the road links could end up circumventing circuitous shipping routes by up to 1,000 km. Second, Bhutan’s concerns may be assuaged if India considers the inclusion of waterways and riverine channels as a less environmentally damaging substitute. _____________________.

a) According to the government’s most recent survey of the quality of it in India, 10% of all things from ‘government sources’ tested NSQ, or not of standard quality.

b) The main concern expressed by Bhutanese citizen groups and politicians is over increased vehicular and air pollution in a country that prides itself on ecological consciousness.

c) The industry, which employs over 3.5 million people and earns over $100 billion in export revenues, is now navigating a world with walls.

d) Perhaps, Bhutan’s objections may even spur an overhaul of emission standards for trucks currently plying in India, Nepal and Bangladesh.

e) The government must seriously consider using IT tools to network all 36 regulators into one integrated nation.

Q.68) A more pressing question at this stage is whether all generic medicines in India are of equal quality. The U.S. and the European Union have ensured that generic drugs are therapeutically equal to the innovator drug by making bioequivalence (BE) testing compulsory. This means that generic formulations are tested on healthy volunteers to ensure that they have the same physiological characteristics as their innovator counterparts. ________________________.

a) Once bioequivalence is established, a generic drug is legally certified to be of the same quality to replace the innovator product and can therefore be interchanged for the innovator product.

b) These BE studies are much cheaper and carry little risk when compared to clinical trials conducted by the company that gets approval for the innovator product.

c) Even the World Health Organisation (WHO) and Medicines Sans Frontières (MSF) purchase only bioequivalent drugs for their programmes.

d) Until earlier this month, India mandated BE studies for only those formulations seeking approval within four years of the innovator product getting approval.

e) As a result, most generic drug manufacturers sought marketing approval from the fifth year onwards, effectively evading the requirement of conducting BE studies.

Q.69)___________________________.But then a salubrious drop in temperature accompanies the rough descent down the six metre-wide mouth of a medieval aqueduct to the north-west of the city. Here, about 25 feet below ground, is cool and softly flowing water, clear as crystal till bare feet touch the floor of the trough and raise a dense cloud of red sediment. Medicinal ‘chamkora’ fern cluster around the white kaolin (calcium) deposits where the waterline meets the unleavened laterite.

a) Fifteen metres into the tunnel, a 63-feet-high shaft opens to the sky and lets a swathe of light cast vague shadows on the inky darkness further ahead, where the water is deep enough to drown a man.

b) The play of water and light streaks the rock face in subtly rich mineral colours: black basalt, pinkish bauxite, umber iron, ochre clay.

c) The vast flatlands outlying Bidar face the brunt of the sun as it bears down on a thinly populated terrain marked by few trees and sparse foliage.

d) Apertures in the towering walls indicate crevices from which, nearly 600 years ago, wicker lamps may have offered light to labouring workers.

e) Harmless water bugs (Aquarius remigis) that help keep the water potable flutter in disarray.

Q.70) In the United Kingdom, police have to prove predicate offence through circumstantial evidence, linking it to the funds generated and laundered. Wherever money laundering is treated as a standalone crime, U.K. agencies are not required to wait for the outcome of investigations into the predicate offence. Also, they are not supposed to prove that the funds are proceeds of a particular offence. ______________________________.

a) Based on enough circumstantial evidence, they have to just establish that the proceeds had a criminal origin.

b) The Central government is considering a proposal to make money laundering a separate criminal offence to be investigated by the Enforcement Directorate.

c) According to experts, the government will have to bring about several amendments to the PMLA, including the current definition of the “proceeds of crime”.

d) This will facilitate quick action against those indulging in money laundering.

e) The Special Investigation Team on black money has also been of the view that money laundering investigations by the Enforcement Directorate.

D.71-75): Five sentences marked as a), b), c), d) and e) are given below. Out of which four are connected to the same theme/concept. Find out the odd option which is irrelevant to the given theme and mark your answer accordingly.

Q.71) a) Language is a formal system of signs governed by grammatical rules of combination to communicate meaning.

b) Language has the properties of productivity and displacement, and relies entirely on social convention and learning.

c) A group of languages that descend from a common ancestor is known as a language family.

d) Language is processed in many different locations in the human brain, but especially in Broca’s and Wernicke’s areas.

e) Language as a system of communication that enables humans to exchange verbal or symbolic utterances.

Q.72) a) The President, Mr. K.R. Narayanan, today called for a shift in priority of human rights perspective to focus on the deprived and the excluded.

b) Mr. Narayanan said the vast number of cases on human rights violations that came before the NHRC was an indication of the emerging consciousness of the people about their human rights.

c) The President pointed out the effective way to solve such problems and ensure civilised existence of the people was to guarantee the human rights of the weaker sections in full measure.

d) Observing that women constituted the largest deprived and excluded group, the President said “it is important to remember and reiterate that women’s rights are human rights”

e) Mr. Narayanan, who was the chief guest at the `Human Rights Day’ celebrations, said the weaker sections of society suffered the most from human rights failures in economic, social and cultural areas.

Q.73) a) The human resource consulting industry has emerged from management consulting and addresses human resource management tasks and decisions.

b) The Expert Resource Consultant suggests solutions based on expertise and experience and assists in the implementation.

c) Human resource consultancies vary in their ranges of services and sizes, with many consultants and academicians breaking off to form their own practices.

d) The Process consultant assists in searching for solutions with methods that facilitate and raise creativity of the client company so that they will be able to implement solutions themselves.

e) The strategic planning component came into play as a result of companies recognizing the need to consider Human resource needs in goals and strategies.

Q.74) a) A Bad bank is set up to buy the bad loans of a bank with significant nonperforming assets at market price.

b) By transferring the bad assets of an institution to the bad bank, the banks clear their balance sheet of toxic assets but would be forced to take write downs.

c) The price at which PSB loans are sold to the bad bank could become a major issue. If the price is too high, the bad bank will not be viable.

d) When a bad bank has gone through its credit work-out process, the remains of the bad bank are often asset ownership.

e) The bank may wish to segregate its “good” assets from its “bad” assets through the creation of a bad bank.

Q.75) a) Banks, it is often said, are the fulcrum of a robust economy.

b) Healthy banks are an essential prerequisite for placing the economy on a higher growth orbit.

c) Bank requires not just holistic thinking but an out-of-the-box approach as well, especially in the evolving global context.

d) A meaningful fix can happen only if banks are given functional autonomy at various levels.

e) The central bank has for now chosen to hedge its bets by reiterating an “accommodative policy stance”.

D.76-80): Select the phrase or connector from the given three options marked I II and III which can be used with or without replacement of certain words to form a pattern of the two sentences given below, implying the same meaning as expressed in the stated sentences as per grammar.

Q.76) “The highest fare segmentation, 2,700 tickets were booked on September 9 and 3,200 tickets on September 10,” Mr. Jamshed said adding that the railways had earned additional revenue of Rs. 80 lakh per day on September 9 and 10. Once half the tickets are sold out, fares rise to 1.5 times of the previous base fares in the premium trains.

I. In the highest fare segment

II. But, additional revenue

III. At the highest fare segments

Pick out the option which can combine both the above sentences into one.

a) Only I

b) Only II

c) Only III

d) Both I & II

e) Both II & III

Q.77) During they travelled so far as Iran, we wanted to know their mode of journey till Afghanistan and we have asked to Iran and Afghanistan for information on the movement of these people. Even both the countries had told they have no details,” said a senior official of the Union Home Ministry.

I. They travelling.

II. Since they travelled.

III. Both countries had informed that.

Pick out the option which can combine both the above sentences into one.

a) Both I & III

b) Both II & III

c) Only I

d) Only III

e) None of the above.

Q.78) Since there was a confusion about the date, for many years, his death anniversary was observed on both days. It was observed on both the days earlier,” says Mr. Viswanathan, who has compiled all works of Bharathiyar.

I. For the time to

II. However, there are confusions

III. Since the time for

Pick out the option which can combine both the above sentences into one.

a) Both I & II

b) Both II & III

c) Only III

d) Only II

e) None of the above.

Q.79) If animal activists, who are aware of these methods, say that they have raised the issue several times with the police. “We conduct raids but cannot take action, and the police don’t help as it is a sensitive issue,” said Saurabh Gupta, a raiding officer with Maneka Gandhi’s NGO — People For Animals.

I. Even

II. If animal activists, who are awareness

III. Then, we conducts raid

Pick out the option which can combine both the above sentences into one.

a) Only I

b) Only II

c) Both I & II

d) Both II & III

e) None of the above.

Q.80) The Delhi Metro has demanding a fare revision considering the increase in electricity tariff and other operational costs. Data with the corporation, 40 per cent of DMRC’s total expenditure is on account of electricity charges, which has increased by almost 100 per cent in the past six years.

I. The Delhi Metro has been demanding

II. Meanwhile, the Delhi Metro has demands

III. According to data with

Pick out the option which can combine both the above sentences into one.

a) Only I

b) Only II

c) Both I & III

d) Both II & III

e) Only III

Q.116) IT services major Infosys announced its engineering footprint in Eastern Europe by opening its first delivery center (DC) in ________.

a) Cyprus

b) Ukraie

c) Monaco

d) Luxemburg

e) Croatia

Q.117) Which of the following two Indian warships have visited Egypt as part of Indian Navy’s overseas deployment to the Mediterranean Sea and the west coast of Africa?

a) INS Vishal and INS Mumbai

b) INS Mumbai and INS Vikrant

c) INS Kochi and INS Vikramaditya

d) INS Mumbai and INS Aditya

e) INS Chennai and INS Vikramaditya

Q.118) Punjab government appoints R. N. Dhoke and Sudhanshu S. Srivastava as Commissioners of which two cities in its state respectively?

a) Patiala and Pathankot

b) Mansa and Hoshiarpur

c) Barnala and Bathinda

d) Firozpur and Gurudaspur

e) Amritsar and Ludhiana

Q.119) Which State Government signed an MoU with the Ziquitza Health Care to introduce a boat ambulance service in four districts where people face difficulties in getting health service?

a) Goa

b) Maharashtra

c) Gujarat

d) Andhra Pradesh

e) Odissa

Q.120) “Quality Research in Homeopathy through Scientific evidence and rich clinical experience” is theme for World Homeopathy Day. When it is observed?

a) April 5th

b) April 15th

c) April 10th

d) April 12th

e) April 14th

Q.121) Which of the following has proposed a four-point initiative to overcome differences and deepen relations with India which includes aligning its ‘One Belt One Road’ project with India’s Act East Policy?

a) Iran

b) Mongolia

c) Maldives

d) China

e) Nepal

Q.122) Which of the following sportsperson becomes the 1st Indian to take pole in FIA Formula 3 European Championship?

a) Jehan Daruvala 

b) Jake Hughes

c) Nikita Mazepin

d) Lando Norris

e) Jake Dennis

Q.123) What is the currency of Albania?

a) Lek

b) Kwanza

c) Nakfa

d) Gourde

e) Som

Q.124) Which of the following Indian scientists elected as the fellows of Royal Society, recently?

a) Krishna Chatterjee

b) Yadvinder Malhi

c) Yaduvendar Chatterjee

d) Subhash Khot

e) Only a, b & d

Q.125) Noted sand artist from Odisha Sudarsan Pattnaik has been selected to represent India in the 10th Sand Art Championship 2017 to be held in _____.

a) Moscow

b) Frankfurt

c) Paris

d) Los Angeles

e) Taipai

Q.126) Which of the following Chief Minister has unveiled the ‘Olly the turtle’ logo and mascot of the Asian athletics championship to spread awareness about the endangered Olive Ridley turtle?

a) Nitish Kumar

b) Naveen Patnaik

c) Pema Khandu

d) Sarbananda Sonowal

e) Chandrababu Naidu

Q.127) Which of the person has been honoured with “Grand Cordon of the Order of the Rising Sun”, in recognition of his achievements in bolstering India-Japan ties?

a) Amir Singh

b) Amreet Singh

c) Ashwin Kumar

d) Ashwani Kumar

e) Aravind Kumar

Q.128) Which among the following is a qualitative tool of monetary policy?

a) Bank Rate

b) Credit Ceiling

c) Credit rationing

d) Cash Reserve Ratio

e) None of these

Q.129) What term is used for maximum capital which the company can raise in its life time?

a) Authorized Capital

b) Registered Capital

c) Nominal Capital

d) All of them
e) None of these

Q.130) Indian origin Dame Asha Khemka wins “Asian Businesswoman of the Year” award belongs to which country?

a) London

b) France

c) Canada

d) Britain

e) Singapore

Q.131) India has been sanctioned how much amount to children of freedom fighters in Bangladesh for the next five years under the new ‘Muktijodha scholarship’ scheme?

a) Rs.40 Crore

b) Rs.50 Crore

c) Rs.35 Crore

d) Rs.30 Crore

e) Rs.25 Crore

Q.132) Headquarter of World Tourism Organization is located in _____.

a) Brussels, Belgium

b) Madrid, Spain

c) Lausanne, Switzerland

d) Copenhagen, Denmark

e) Paris, France

Q.133) India’s first ever “Transgender Sports Meet” held in _______.

a) Odissa

b) West Bengal

c) Maharashtra

d) Tamil Nadu

e) Kerala

Q.134)The Bank for the changing world” is the tagline of which Bank?

a) HSBC

b) Axis Bank

c) Bank of America

d) BNP Paribas

e) Dhanlaxmi Bank

Q.135) NTPC has commissioned 500 GW units in Unchahar, Uttar Pradesh which contributes nearly ______ percentage of India’s power generation.

a) 14%

b) 24%

c) 44%

d) 54%

e) 74%

Q.136) Headquarter of Oriental Bank of Commerce is _____.

a) Mumbai

b) Hyderabad

c) Bangalore

d) New Delhi

e) Gurugram

Q.137) Which of the following bank is not in risk according to regulatory action of Prompt Corrective Action (PCA) is implemented properly, warns American Financial company Standard & Poor’s in a report?

a) Union Bank of India

b) Bank of India

c) Indian Bank

d) Indian Overseas Bank

e) IDBI Bank

Q.138) Which among the following is NOT a subsidiary of RBI?

a) National Housing Bank

b) NABARD

c) Bharatiya Reserve Bank Note Mudran Private Limited

d) SIDBI 

e) None of these

Q.139) Asset Reconstruction Company is associated with _____.

a) DICGC

b) ECGC

c) NPA

d) SEBI

e) None of the above

Q.140) Canada has recently introduced a new non-stop flight from Mumbai to ______ and is expecting double-digit growth in tourist arrivals from India?

a) Alberta

b) Toronto

c) Quebec

d) Ontario

e) Manitoba

Q.141) Which of the following is the popular name of the norms by which a bank satisfies itself about the customer’s identity and activities?

a) Basel norms

b) KYC norms

c) Service norms

d) Lending norms

e) None of the above

Q.142) Which of the following states will get a campus of the Film & Television Institute of India (FTII) which will be an extension of Satyajit Ray Film & Television Institute of Kolkata?

a) Assam

b) Arunachal Pradesh

c) Odissa

d) Bihar

e) Jharkhand

Q.143) Stock Holding Corporation of India Ltd (SHCIL) was established as a ________ company.

a) Private Limited

b) Unlimited

c) Public limited

d) Limited Liability Partnership

e) None of the above

Q.144) What is the initial capital amount to start Small Finance Banks?

a) 100 crore

b) 200 crore

c) 500 crore

d) 1000 crore

e) 1500 crore

Q.145) Which cricketer of New Zealand has announced his retirement from international cricket after England’s T20 competition?

a) Martin Guptill

b) Ross Taylor

c) Trent Bout

d) Tim Southee

e) Grant Elliott

Q.146) Which department did Prof. Nandini Sundar of Delhi School of Economics belongs, who won Dr Malcolm & Adiseshiah Award?

a) Chemistry

b) Statistics

c) Economics

d) Sociology

e) Literature

Q.147) Name the person who inventor the G.I.Joe action figure was died in Los Angeles at the age of 84, recently?

a) Stanley Weston

b) Guy Hamilton

c) James Cameroon

d) James Wan

e) Sam Mendes

Q.148) Which of the following women cricketer become the leading wicket taker in women’s ODI?

a) Kat Perry

b) Jhulan Goswami

c) Harmanpreet Kaur

d) Heather Knight

e) Meg Lanning

Q.149) How many digits are there in CIBIL score?

a) 4

b) 3

c) 6

d) 9

e) 1

Q.150) Rs.1400 crores (EUR 200 million) has been sanctioned by European Investment Bank (EIB) to ________ to fund solar projects?

a) Reserve Bank of India

b) State Bank of India

c) Indian Overseas Bank

d) Punjab National Bank

e) Indian Bank

Q.151) Which of the following app was acquired by US tech giant Apple?

a) Faceapp

b) Beddit

c) Snapchat

d) Workflow

e) Tuple jump

Q.152) Who won twin crown (both singles and doubles) badminton at Pembangunan Jaya Raya Junior Grand Prix in U-15 category?

a) Samiya Farooqui

b) Gayatri Pullela

c) Bernice Lim

d) Kelly Larissa

e) Shelandry Vyola

Q.153) Which of the following system is launched by PM Modi to make the paperless system in supreme court?

a) Integrated Case Modules system

b) Digital management system

c) Integrated Case Management system

d) Integrated Court management system

e) None of these

Q.154) Which of the following country has decided to replace the Maitri Station in Antartica?

a) India

b) Japan

c) United States of America

d) United Kingdom

e) France

Q.155) Name the National Security Adviser of U.S. to visit India shared his perspective on the security situation in the extended region including in Afghanistan, West Asia and the DPRK [Democratic People’s Republic of Korea]?

a) Lt. Gen. H.R. McMaster

b) Lt. Gen. Mike Pence

c) Lt. Gen. James Mattis

d) Lt. Gen. Wilbur Ross

e) Lt. Gen. Ryan Zinke

e) Lt. Gen. Ryan Zinke

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